His whole post is devoid of content and nothing but statements without any real substance or evidence.
You claimed 'There were a few false assumptions made in the post. The first is that the traffic coming in had JavaScript disabled.' Care to elaborate on how it's a false assumption if the implied statement above is true?
I'll give you that he may be wrong, but I really don't see where there's concrete evidence to support your claim he's making false assumptions!
edit: never mind; an img in a noscript tag.
This begs the question whether or not there was a scenario where there was a hit to the site, the referrer was set to Facebook, JS was enabled in the browser, but the resulting hit didn't result in a JS enabled request to the analytics software.
Another poster mentioned prefetching as a likely culprit. Google is known to prefetch search results for you, but it requires the use of the rel="prerender" tag. I find it highly unlikely that is what's happening here.