I really don't understand how borrowing against shares isn't counted as realizing the stocks. I mean, apart from rich people lobbying against it and such.
If I buy some stocks for $100 and sit on them until they're worth $1000, if I sell them for $1000 or take a $1000 loan against them, I've realized the $900 gain and I should pay taxes on that either way.
If the stock value drops below $1000 (or to $0), would you get your tax $ back?
If paid $1000 for the stock, then took a loan and paid interest on it, then paid taxes on the $900 gain, and now the stock is worth $0. Now all I get to take is a loss on the $100. Bad deal.
If you don't want to gamble then sell the stocks, that way you are not surprised by later changes.
Again, if you didn't want to accept that risk you could have just sold the stocks instead of taking a loan.
This isn't much different from taking a loan against a house, and then due to external circumstances the house drops in value, say a landfill next door. You're not getting back the property tax you paid.
I could have reasons for not wanting to sell it. Maybe I don't want to boost up my income for the year and be subject to even more taxes or loss of benefits (i.e. ACA). Or maybe I want to keep the dividend stream.
It any case it's already overcomplicated, and I don't think we need to make it moreso by giving the govt another opportunity to take yet another slice of a transaction they had nothing to do with.
Not to mention, the lender that gave me a loan has to give the govt a slice of their income, which comes from me.
> This isn't much different from taking a loan against a house
The difference is that houses rarely lose 100% of their value. Normally they hold their value or thereabouts.
do you disagree with my point, when talking only about income tax?