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I fail to see a difference. In both cases demand increased, no?

Here's [0] a good overview as to the differences.

[0] https://www.toppr.com/guides/business-economics/theory-of-de...

Yes, but for subtly different reasons. In the case of induced demand, the supply curve shifts to the right (eg number of highway lanes increases) so we move to the right on demand curve (or quantity increases, eg more people drive). On the Jevon's paradox case, efficiency increases (eg fuel efficiency increases), so the _demand_ curve shifts (eg more people people drive).

Ahh so the difference is in a definition of supply.

You say drilling more oil is something different than building more efficient cars.

I would say in both cases supply of oil increased so there is no real difference.

.... I mean in the case of more efficient cars supply of oil explicitly did not change.

There are meaningful differences in terms of pricing strategies, anticipating demand, etc.

Isn't it the same from the point of view of the consumer's calculus? If suddenly my car can do the same trip for half the fuel and in half the time, whether it's because the road is better or because my car is better, it won't affect how I'm going to use my car from then on.

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