>> Like britain invaded china ( opium wars ) and forced opium on china's population.
> how did Britain force the Chinese population to consume Opium?
The Chinese government of the time had banned opium and the British worked to bypass that, eventually with governmental force.Did the English strap down each individual and intravenously administer opium? Unlikely.
To the extent that a government reflects the general sense and purpose of a population (mandate of heaven, etc), did Queen Victoria and all her subjects force people in China to accept the presence and marketing of an addictive and risky substance? Absolutely.
Ironically, the people of Great Britain fought a war to sell opium right as there was a temperance movement within Victorian culture.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Temperance_movement_in_the_Uni...
What is very well established is that the british fought a war , literally called the opium war by Western historians themselves with the main objective of keeping their opium distribution into China open after the emperor banned it
Their action was akin to if some majority owner of Purdue pharma invades US and forces US government to "keep the oxy market open" while letting "people make their own decision".