>"Lamb Weston and McCain alone control 70 percent of the market" hides that McCain holds about 30% of the US market.

What exactly is objectionable about this sentence? The two companies are clearly outlined as separate in the article, and the fact that one company holds about half as much market share as both combined is... not surprising or misleading. Would you rather have the 40-30-20-7 split more explicitly outlined, and why do you think that has a big impact on the reader's takeaway from the article?