> A 2021 study by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention in the US found blood levels in children aged one to five years fell from 15.2 to 0.83 micrograms per decilitre between the late 1970s and 2016 as leaded fuels were banned.
> A 2021 study by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention in the US found blood levels in children aged one to five years fell from 15.2 to 0.83 micrograms per decilitre between the late 1970s and 2016 as leaded fuels were banned.
this is a massive scandal that has not been fully understood in public AFAIK. Extensive documentation of the false premise of leaded gasoline has been published, e.g.
https://www.thenation.com/article/archive/secret-history-lea...
Current regulation requires water supply at the tap to measure <10 µg/L, changing to <5 µg/L next decade.
2-3 µg/L is significant.
I seem to recall reading an article that observed that every time we do a study of the effect of lead exposure on IQ, it gets larger.
IQs aren't changing much, but lead exposure is going down, and so we keep imputing the same IQ gaps to ever-smaller quantities of lead.
Isn't IQ a comparative representation of one's standing within their contemporary age group?
My understanding is that within a given group the median should be 100. So you won't see it change between groups. This is highly relevant when you're talking about different groups being exposed to different concentrations of lead.
As an extreme example to make the point, if people born in 1970 were all exposed to high concentrations of lead and were all morons as a result, their median IQ is still 100.
Then people born in 2000 are exposed to far less lead and are super smart, but their median IQ would still be 100.
Points above or below 100 are merely a specification of how many fractions of a standard deviation above or below that median within the given age group a person's performance is measured to be.
That said, even within a group, 2.5 - 3 points seems largely insignificant as an individual's score might vary more than this depending on which day of the week they took the test. It seems a big stretch to draw any scientific conclusion from such a small variance.
To impute the effect of lead, you look at a bunch of people, measure the amount of lead in their blood, measure their IQs, and see how much of a difference there is between people with a lot of lead and people with less or none.
Modern poor people who live in crummy areas where there's still a little bit of lead are about as stupid, relative to the leadless elite, as poor people from decades past who lived in crummy areas which, at the time, had a lot more lead than they do now.
It seems like a safe assumption that the effect of lead on people with negligible lead levels has stayed constant over the decades at indistinguishable-from-zero.
But for lead to explain the gap between the lead-haves and the lead-have-nots, its effect must have increased dramatically over that same period. That gap hasn't changed. But lead levels have plummeted.
It's not easily explained by things like immigration since it is also present (though less pronounced) even within families. The hypothesis I find most compelling is that IQ levels have "naturally" been declining for decades, but improvements in nutrition, education, etc were helping to offset, and even rise beyond, these declines. But as nutrition, education, etc reach the point of diminishing returns, the declines dominate.
[1] - https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S016028962...
Though that goes against Europe hitting the decline earlier than the US which leads in sugars and unhealthy foods.
I suspect they don't do the research for real, they do some kind of simulation, and write it was in mice. They do know the metal changes the protein, but they incorrectly claim that the version without it works, but in reality the one with it does. They could'n make such an error if they actually did the research for real.
You find compelling the idea that organisms naturally get dumber with each successive generation? What possible mechanism would cause IQ levels to "naturally" decline? Have they been naturally declining since the dawn of civilization? Since LUCA? Shouldn't the expectation be that without other causes, IQ levels would remain roughly constant throughout generations?
But there's also the most objective and straightforward reason as well - evolution. As far as evolution is concerned IQ isn't good or bad, it's just another highly heritable trait. When it correlates against fertility (as it currently does), IQs will decrease over time. When it correlates with fertility (as it likely did when life was more difficult), they will increase over time.
What do you base this on?
There are confounders between houses with lead and other demographics and contribute to the gap and aren't completely controlled — aspects of social class and low mobility that are hard to explicitly capture, it's all old housing.
So as the lead level drops and the gap remains steady (increasingly dominated by the confounding factors), more and more IQ gap gets attributed to the small lead-level gap between those living in old housing with abated lead pipes + paint and new pipes + new paint.