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this part was both clear and unclear to me - does it exclude patients using it for weight loss or not?

They didn't study patients using semaglutide for weight loss only.

I guess a Bayesian would increase their estimated probability of such a problem also for the weight loss case, but not by as much (as diabetes predisposes people to other ailments).

What you are saying makes sense. Subjectively I feel like they could have done a better job at making this distinction clear given the explosive use for weight loss - but maybe it's just because my interest in this is outside of diabetes.

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