> In the age and calendar time stratified Cox proportional hazards models, no significant associations were observed between total chocolate consumption and risk of T2D in the pooled dataset (table 3). After adjusting for lifestyle and dietary risk factors, we found that participants who consumed ≥5 servings/week of any chocolate showed a 10% (95% CI 2% to 17%; P trend=0.07) lower relative risk of T2D compared with those who never or rarely consumed chocolate.
To me, this sounds like there was no correlation, but after weighing the data by other factors (including BMI, according to the methods section) a correlation appears. Does that mean if members of a subgroup eat lots of chocolate, but also have much higher BMIs, because they also eat lots of everthing else, they could have a lower adjusted risk for type 2 diabetes, even if they actually have a higher incidence of type 2 diabetes? Am I misinterpreting?