Do you have more details?
Arbitration, when passed, was designed for contract disputes between merchants, not statutory claims or between entities of unequal bargaining power. In fact members of Congress expressly disavowed touching either consumer or employment contracts - and even went so far as to make that explicit with respect to employment.
It was the Court, in Circuit City v. Adams, incorrectly, claimed that ejusdem generis applied here.
Please see for further details:
Sternlight, J. R. (2005). Creeping Mandatory Arbitration: Is It Just? Scholarly Works, 57(280), 1631–1676. pp 1631
Cain, R. M. (1988). Commercial Disputes and Compulsory Arbitration. The Business Lawyer, pp 65
Cohen, J. H., & Dayton, K. (1926). The New Federal Arbitration Law. Virginia Law Review, 12(4), 265–286. https://doi.org/10.2307/1065471 pp 265
Stone, K. V. W. (2018). Rustic Justice: Community and Coercion under the Federal Arbitration Act [Preprint]. LawArXiv. https://doi.org/10.31228/osf.io/6g7e3 §IV.F pp 987-991
For all references: https://arbitrationinformation.org/docs/references/
Congress can of course pass a law if the court got it wrong to clarify the construction.
I even gave you a source from the author of the law itself.
You are correct that congress can fix the issue. Due to deadlock and a lack of care they have not.
"nothing herein contained shall apply to contracts of employment of seamen, railroad employees, or any other class of workers engaged in foreign or interstate commerce."
That exception does not apply to all workers. In Circuit City Stores, Inc. v. Adams (2001), the SC found that it only applies to transportation workers.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Circuit_City_Stores,_Inc._v._A...
And yes. I read the full text of Circuit City including every footnote. I've also read multiple analysis of the opinion by different scholars. I've also read multiple articles by the original author of the text as well as transcripts of the Congressional debate at the time it passed.
The reasoning for specifically mentioning transportation workers is that there are separate statues for arbitration or worker-contract for those workers and Congress did not want to conflict.
Circuit City was an error.
It could have simply said "nothing herein contained shall apply to contracts of employment". Instead it lists specific kinds of contracts it shall not apply to.
And the explanation that "Congress did not want to conflict" doesn't make sense. Excluding all workers from this act would ensure that this act does not conflict, not mentioning them does not ensure that.
Personally, I think it was poorly drafted by modern standards. Today, this particular exclusion would be something like adding an additional paragraph with text that says "nothing herein shall affect any provision of any other statue" (please excuse my imprecision)
Julius Henry Cohen, one of the key authors of the law, wrote the following (ellipse and elision for emphasis. Please see the full source for full text):
> ... which commands an unusually widespread support in the business world because the reform is directed primarily toward settlement of commercial disputes...
> A written provision for arbitration contained in any contract which involves maritime transactions ... or interstate commerce as generally defined, is made "valid, enforceable and irrevocable,"
> It must be read in the light of the situation which it was devised to correct and of the history of arbitration anid of similar statutes in the recent past.
> The evils which arbitration is intended to correct are three in number: (1) The long delay usuallv incident to a proceeding at law, in equity or in admiralty, especially in recent years in centers of commercial activity, where there has arisen great congestion of the court calendars. nce. (2) The expense of litigation. (3) The failure, through litigation, to reach a decision regarded as just when measured by the standards of the business world.
> Arbitration under the Federal and similar statutes is simply a new procedural remedy, particularly adapted to the settlement of commercial dispute
> 'Information collected by the Department of Commerce over the past several years' hie said, 'clearly showed that the substantial element of the American business public is overwhelmingly in favor of arbitration in the settlement of *commercial disputes* in both domestic and foreign trade
While I don't quote it here, there is also interesting rules around jurisdictions which the law was trying to dance around.
Please also see [2]
58 See Leslie, supranote 57, at 309 ("Congress did not intend the FAA to facilitate firms imposing arbitration clauses on consumers through contracts of adhesion.... For example, in colloquy, when senators raised the issue of contracts of adhesion, the bill's supporters testified that the FAA would not apply to such situations."); id. at 310-11 ("During the earliest hearings for the FAA, concerns were expressed that the Act could cover employment . .. . The Act's text was amended [to exclude] 'contracts of employment of ... any ... class of workers engaged in foreign or interstate commerce.' . . . [T]he amendment appeased labor interests, who removed their opposition to the bill." (footnote omitted) (quoting 9 U.S.C. § 1 (2012))); Margaret L. Moses, Statutory Misconstruction: How the Supreme Court Created a FederalArbitrationLaw Never Enacted by Congress, 34 FLA. ST. U. L. REv. 99, 147 (2006) ("[N]o one in 1925-not the drafters, the Secretary of Commerce, organ ized labor, nor members of Congress-believed that the FAA applied to employment contracts.").
[0] https://www.law.cornell.edu/wex/erie_doctrine
[1] Cohen, J. H., & Dayton, K. (1926). The New Federal Arbitration Law. Virginia Law Review, 12(4), 265–286. https://doi.org/10.2307/1065471 pp 265
[2] Fitzpatrick, B. T. (2017). Justice Scalia and Class Actions. Notre Dame Law Review, 92, 1977. https://scholarship.law.vanderbilt.edu/faculty-publications/... pp 1986 note 58 (via citation)
> These points represent at best pure speculation, which a fair reading of the legislative history quickly undercuts. As Professor Schwartz has pointed out, language in the bill concerning contracts involving commerce was amended at the request of Senator Walsh, who wanted to narrow the effect of the Act, not expand it.178 Prior to amendment in 1924,179 the bill which became the FAA provided coverage of three categories: “any contract or maritime transaction or transaction involving commerce.”180 The application of the FAA to “any contract” would have included contracts not in interstate commerce.181 At the time, contracts not considered in interstate commerce included most employment contracts and insurance contracts.182 Senator Walsh’s amendment limited contracts covered by the Act to any “contract evidencing a . . . transaction involving commerce.”183 His clear intent was to prevent the application of the FAA to contracts such as those of insurance and employment, which he considered adhesion contracts.184 Thus, by limiting the scope of the FAA to contracts which were actually considered in interstate commerce, Congress was reducing the reach of the bill, not expanding it to apply in state courts.
It is possible I misremember or misstated the conflict comment I made above too. I do know that for example: train and airline employees have explicit statues for their contracts. I am also certain that I read at least one article about this conflict between the FAA and other statutes. I am having some trouble locating it at the moment (I've read 198 articles on the topic) though.
[I actually made https://arbitrationinformation.org/ originally as my own personal notes since my memory isn't great. It only turned into a website once I realised that my notes would be useful for other people.]
[3] Margaret L Moses. (2006). Statutory Miconstruction: How the Supreme Court Created a Federal Arbitration Law Never Enacted by Congress. Florida State University Law Review, 34(1). https://ir.law.fsu.edu/lr/vol34/iss1/3
(Answer: they do not. They allow the Arbitrator to force discovery, but it is not mandated).
Additionally you may lobby your lawmakers to make this sort of thing illegal or at least more limited. But these arbitration clauses appeared because our civil law system was out of control with lawsuits. There needs to be reasonable limits on both sides.
Putting some estimates to the situation, the calculation is something like (chance of a serious dispute arising = 0.0001) x (chance of a payout from the courts = 0.33) x (payout = $100,000) -> I'd be willing to pay $3.30 extra to avoid fixed arbitration clauses in a deal where there was serious money at stake.
That doesn't exactly capture all the game theory of the situation, but it suggests the risks here aren't worth shopping around for. It is easier and more effective to engage in economic voting with feet and punishing businesses that way for failure.
I actually don’t have a problem with arbitration when it’s a mutually agreed deal term. But think that when it’s in a standard TOS/service there needs to be user protections/minimum standards (e.g. capped claimant fees, option for neutral third party arbiter, convenient/virtual location, discovery rights, etc.)
Depending on your views, you might also note that American courts are ruinously expensive and many people are denied access to justice because they can't afford to go through the legal process - which a cheaper parallel system can help with.
Or with different political views, you might note that because the powerful elite get to write the contract, the powerful are only subject to arbitration when they want to be. And laws are written by the powerful elite.
Industrial gatekeeping is a real problem. One of the indirect mechanisms is the accumulated complexity of the law and the seeming inability for legislatures to remove outdated and fruitless laws from their books. Unsurprisingly the people most capable of achieving this are not interested in doing it.
Get real.
What did your lawyer say about it?
I naively believed that the process would be vaguely fair. It never occurred to me that they would allow the other side to see what I said, but not allow me to challenge (or even see) what the other side said.
Arbitration isn’t small claims. It’s an order of magnitude cheaper than litigation. But it’s still subject to complex rules; you should have counsel when pursuing it. (And hopes akin to self representation in court without.)
> never occurred to me that they would allow the other side to see what I said, but not allow me to challenge (or even see) what the other side said
Which venue? This sounds more like a procedural errors during preliminary. If you honestly believe they acted incorrectly, I’d be curious how a properly-filed complaint would have been received.
Edit: why are you booing me?? I'm right
When the government is suing you as is in criminal courts it is a 8000 pound gorilla, with all resources of state that also runs and pays for every parts of the criminal justice systems, the courts, law enforcement,prison system, prosecution and even your defense lawyer[1] .
The system is not designed to be compassionate or fair or even efficient. You are fighting for your freedom or even life, for everyone in the process else it is just another file they need to move. You get caught in it, no matter if you are found guilty or innocent your life will be altered by the ordeal.
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Civil courts are not like that. Small claims or otherwise, the government is only involved in judging and enforcing the judgements they get paid in fees no matter who wins.
Fighting a large corporation with some protections government system affords (like discovery, precedents, torts, small claims etc) is better in most countries where government is indifferent[2] towards the large Co wining or losing, than fighting the same corp via arbitration managed by a entity who gets bulk of their revenue from large Co.
You are still disadvantaged because Large Co can expend thousands of hours of lawyer time and you don't have the same luxury. It is still better than when the "neutral" third party is being paid by one large Co in your case and thousand other cases they give them as business.
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[1] when you cannot afford one, which is lot of us most of the time.
[2] American criminal justice system is pro business. This is effect of no limits to corporate money allowed in politics and many judicial selections only by election and not appointment, i.e. judges are also politicians who need to fund election campaigns. Even with these disadvantages, they are not as directly being compensated as in arbitration.
https://www.ycombinator.com/legal/
THESE TERMS OF USE CONTAIN AN ARBITRATION AGREEMENT, WHICH WILL, WITH LIMITED EXCEPTION, REQUIRE YOU TO SUBMIT CLAIMS YOU HAVE AGAINST US TO BINDING AND FINAL ARBITRATION.
The whole point is that it's not a matter of you not wanting to sue them now because you "don't pay them anything". What happens if HN/ycombinator does something? Say they offer a service to recommend hire/non-hire for companies based on your comment history, and they for arbitrary/capricious reasons always say "do not hire" (maybe your comment about not agreeing to arbitration agreements), maybe they use "AI" and their service reports you as a "republican democrat homophobic christian anti-christmas woke ..." (e.g. all the keywords that would be needed to ensure that at least one of them would trigger an auto rejection from any company).
The fact that you agreed to arbitration, means you can't sue them in a fair court, and you can't use a class action with all the other victims (class actions exist because the "winning" from a single lawsuit like this is generally low enough to render it infeasible, that's the entire reason for arbitration and anti-class action terms).
The fact the you agreed in the context of commenting on a free service is not relevant at that point.
This is like the Disney "you agreed to arbitration for Disney streaming so you can't sue us for food allergy in a restaurant" (to be fair, as far as I can make out Disney was not responsible in that case, but using the Disney tv arbitration term was clearly bad PR but if they _were_ responsible would be just applicable and just as BS)