Can we talk about how the voter turnout for the GOP and Dems both follow linear patterns in the last few races, except for Dem turnout in 2020? How do we explain the statistical anomaly, other than the obvious?
Mail-in voting favoring democrats is well known, and is why the Republican party vilifies it and and anything that may be biased toward Democrat votes.
But 4 years later? It's like making decisions when you're hungry versus the memory of hunger...
No 'pipe leaks'. No videos of counters covering up windows. No sudden last minute rule changes. It was... unremarkable and normal.
I think this is going to go down like the Kennedy - Nixon election where the allegations of fraud seemed made up at the time, but a few decades later, after we've calmed down about the candidates, we will uncover the truth. Whether it was enough to shift the 2020 election ... who knows, but the truth has the habit of coming out eventually.
I mean 20 million people sat at home? Really? That's an insane amount.
Other explanations could include things along the lines of unemployed people/people at home (COVID) having more time to get into politics. Or, this election cycle burning them out, or Gaza, or all of the above and more.
I was thinking more along the lines of, for me to believe the claims.
No prosecution would have been necessary outside the court of public opinion. I mean if there is fraud, prosecute it no matter who did it. But Trump hired an investigator for the news cycle, and the guy found nothing.