Here is a fuller expansion of the thinking behind my sentence you quote.
The usual construction is:
- in order to have a peaceful and ordered society, citizens renounce the use of violence and interact only by peaceful means
- citizens of a city/region/country delegate the use of violence to the government (the "sovereign state")
- the government's use of violence is carefully circumscribed by laws and use of governmental laws outside these circumstances is forbidden
Which ends up defining government as the agent with the exclusive authority to use violence in a geographic region. And by extension has a monopoly on the use of violence, for the safety and freedom of all concerned.
"Breaking the sovereign state’s monopoly on violence", in this interpretation, would be to say that some or all people have recourse to violence, and in the worst case are not restrained by law or government. It's in this sense that I think that "breaking the sovereign state’s monopoly on violence" amounts to distributing access to violence more widely.
The consistent application of these ideas would require that citizens not have the right to resist government application of force. In my view, the second amendment is not a carve-out of (i.e. an exception to) this doctrine if it is understood to be applicable to resisting force applied by other citizens, not by government.