According to the book "The Naked Neanderthal" by the paper's lead author, no.
This suggests that humans socially dominated Neanderthals when they came into contact.
The evidence does show that humans were vastly superior at making weapons.
This suggests that humans socially dominated Neanderthals when they came into contact.
The evidence does show that humans were vastly superior at making weapons.
H. sapiens mtDNA was also found in "recent" neanderthal remains.
Oh, wait, it was...
That's a rather bold claim about one of the world's foremost paleoanthropologists.
"When you are searching for ancient DNA [from 40,000 to 45,000 years ago] … all these early sapiens have recent Neanderthal DNA, and that's why we have [Neanderthal DNA] today. But when you reach and you try to extract DNA from the last Neanderthals, contemporaries of these early sapiens — let's say between 40,000 and 50,000 years ago — there's not a single Neanderthal with sapiens DNA." https://www.livescience.com/archaeology/simply-did-not-work-...
“… most Neanderthal homologous regions in sub-Saharan African populations originate from migration of AMH [anatomically modern human] populations from Africa to Eurasia ∼250 kya, and subsequent admixture with Neanderthals, resulting in ∼6% AMH ancestry in Neanderthals. These results indicate that there have been multiple migration events of AMHs out of Africa and that Neanderthal and AMH gene flow has been bi-directional.”
This is, admittedly, research published after Slimak’s book came out, and referring to an earlier time period.
It's interesting that according to https://www.livescience.com/archaeology/humans-and-neanderth... "This group of humans died out".
Why? Is it because it is assumed that the dominant specie would steal the women (who would spread these traces in the dominant specie)?
Isn't it possible that the dominant specie would also just rape, but not steal the women? (which would presumably cause the opposite genetic "flow")