Hacker News Reader

That's explained in Article 102 of the Brazilian Constitution (in Portuguese):

https://constituicao.stf.jus.br/dispositivo/cf-88-parte-1-ti...

So just from skimming a translated version, it does not seem like Judges have the power to impose fines, ban unrelated companies that are owned by the same person, or ban things like VPNs. Am I missing something?

You are not missing anything. The Brazilian court has done far more about things which it does not have any basis for. There are many previous HN threads about it as well. Some brazilians had detailed those instances in those threads.

I'm guessing a "skimmed translation" probably doesn't give you a complete understanding of Brazilian law...

Yes, thank you, that's why I've been asking people. Do you have an actual answer or do you just have nothing of value to add?

Do note that some a important power of the US supreme court, the right to declare laws void because they are unconstitutional, is not a right listed in the Constitution itself.

Rather the supreme court declared in 1803 that they had that right, because it makes sense if you sort of squint at the constitution.

I respect this response. So many people would have derailed the conversation by disagreeing.