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Do you have support for this claim? It is pretty extraordinary, and extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence.

AFAIK, "Him" has been the accusative (subject) form since at least Old English. https://www.etymonline.com/word/him

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GP is probably thinking of "My dad and me"; not sure how far back it goes but I've certainly heard it quite a bit from native speakers. You might hear someone say, "Him and me, we go way back", but that's slightly different; but "Him and I" mixes the subject/object case, which must be wrong (and I've never heard before).

ETA: I generally don't bother "correcting" the grammar "mistakes" that native speakers make (like "My dad and me did X"); but if I think it's pretty clearly a non-native speaker, I'll correct them, because that's what I would want someone to do for me if I were speaking in their language.

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