Gut microbiota markers for autism spectrum disorder
newatlas.com
newatlas.com
A lot of research says that pre and probititics don’t get absorbed very well by the gut
Probiotics are doses of the yeasts and microbes - and again you don't want these to be absorbed by the gut - they need to live on the gut walls and feed on your stools.
But yes, I agree - research shows that only limited amounts of both of these will reach the lower intestine. BUT, once there they should multiply on the rich food source. With a small 5g bag of yeast, I can easily ferment a 25 litre bucket of wort to make beer (as long as no other bacteria or yeast get their first, that the wort isn't treated with something poisonous to yeast, that the temperature isn't too hot or too cold...)
There are less invasive methods being practiced that just involve putting a healthy gut population into a human's gut, and from what I've read it's still in the research phase.
Evidence of curing obesity, curing IBS in mice. I haven't seen any studies that are statistically significant in humans yet, because this is still relatively new.
https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/treatments/25202-fecal...
There has also been some really interesting study of the brain-gut connection and the effect this microbe population has on mental health. Really interesting things where mice with aberrant gut microbiomes have "metal health conditions" (how ever you measure that in mice) and then have their vagus nerve (gut to brain, a huge nerve) cut. The outcomes were shocking, basically a curing of the condition. There is research here about humans: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC9685564/
"metal health conditions" (how ever you measure that in mice)
I know cortisol levels are a way one can diagnose stress/anxiety in animals. (My vet said they look to that as a proxy for "is my animal in discomfort" at times)From the abstract: “Machine learning using single-kingdom panels showed area under the curve (AUC) of 0.68 to 0.87 in differentiating children with ASD from those that are neurotypical. A panel of 31 multikingdom and functional markers showed a superior diagnostic accuracy with an AUC of 0.91, with comparable performance for males and females. Accuracy of the model was predominantly driven by the biosynthesis pathways of ubiquinol-7 or thiamine diphosphate, which were less abundant in children with ASD. Collectively, our findings highlight the potential application of multikingdom and functional gut microbiota markers as non-invasive diagnostic tools in ASD.”
That gives us something interesting to work with.
And diagnosing selective diet by itself by just asking questions isn't that hard anyway, is it? If it was a cheatcode to a diagnosis I think we'd figured it out already.
ICD-11's rationale for moving F64 out of F is a good example of that.
You are "diagnosed" with Autism.
Wether or not we are "curing" it or just taking steps earlier to better set someone up for success with it, you still need a diagnoses.
Early diagnosis may also help with getting neurodiverse individuals support in navigating a hostile world. (Considering that some therapies have been harmful to autistic people, we should be careful here!)
I can't read the full paper and the article also does not have this information but I have a few questions.
I am curious more about the sample size, all we know is that 1627 Children were studied, but what was the breakdown of neurotypical and Children with ASD. The only percent given is female (which seems odd that in the abstract that that is the percent they chose to give).
I am also curious about the diversity of the children studied. From a culture, income, etc. All things that would impact their diets and possibly the biome.
Finally, "considered neurotypical", does that imply that they were actually tested or that they are assumed neurotypical?
Just some questions I don't see answered that jump out to me as big questions that I wish this article brought up.
My guess about the weird over emphasis on the percent of females in the study is due to autism diagnoses and research concentrating around males.
Your oyher questions are a bit odd given you concede you haven't read the research article which may indeed answer all these questions. The OP can't replicate everything from the original article.
That said, neurotypical kind of implies being taken as the normative, default case, so I'm guessing they're assumed to be neurotypical if they don't have a diasnosis for anything else. I don't think there any way to diagnose someone as having no neurodivergence.
I would assume that if you were doing a study on this, you would test anyone that is taking place in it if they are not already tested.
Otherwise, your data would be possibly based on a flawed datapoint.
That is what I am asking. Are we assuming they are neurotypical or was ever child tested.
>> I don't think there any way to diagnose someone as having no neurodivergence.
That doesn’t really make sense to me. I could see that it may not be cut and dry but if you can test for it you also get not.
I acknowledge that it is a spectrum and this is complicated. But I would think just assuming neurotypical also isn’t the answer either if you are studying this.