That said, this meta-analysis is also filled with some crazy statements. It seems to imply sexual dimorphism is only really visible in repro organs but women necessarily need to have wider hips to facilitate child birth among other differences.
This obvious point should have also been noted when comparing differences in organ mass, since mothers of babies with larger heads are more likely to die so this is selected against. Not an issue with lungs, heart etc., hence larger % differences in sexes there.
These aren’t egregious omissions in and of themselves, but it’s certainly useful context I’d like to have were I not familiar with sexual dimorphism.
The dismissiveness of a 1.6 fold increase in SDN size of human males compared to human women is bad. That’s enormous! Not something I would prepend with “only” and repeatedly call “small”, even when not comparing the differences between M/F humans and M/F rodents.
Bizarre that none of the authors objected to this phrasing, because it’s poisoned reading the rest of this paper for me. How am I meant to trust the authors’ opinion of what a “small” difference is?
Some of the points are a bit more compelling, like in section 5.1 where they point out that a difference attributed to M/F was replicated in much smaller size by concentrating on volume instead, or in 5.2 where they point out a few papers that missed crucial nuance.
But overall after reading a few thousand words of this, the nicest thing I can say about it is that I agree that it is indeed gigantic.
I don't see how it's surprising that an new generation of signal-detection tool finds population-level differences in the brains that produce these cognitions.
However, the news article seems to spin this as "male and female brains are totally different entities that bear no relationship with one another." Although I haven't reread it carefully, it seems like the article is saying something more like "you can identify gender-specific patterns, and those gender-specific components relate to things like cognitive ability gender-specifically". It's not that you can't find overlap — that that wasn't the focus of the study — it's that if you go looking for differences, you can find them.
When you give a man a female dose of hormones or a woman a male dose of hormones, it has a very big effect on their mood, behavior, and mental wellbeing. This change is much, much bigger than the average diffences we see between men and women. For example, an average man with an average woman's level of testosterone will experience a MUCH higher level depression, listlessness, and sexual disinterest than the average woman experiences.
This strongly implies that human brains must correct for these huge hormonal differences. Basically, in order for male and female behavior to be similar, their brains must differ. If their brains are the same, then hormones will have a much, much bigger influence on male and female behavior than what we actually see in reality.
Hormone-correcting brain differences would also imply that it's possible for people to be born with some type of intersex brain condition, and that these individuals would benefit greatly from receiving hormone therapy to bring their hormone levels in line with their brains. And this, indeed, seems to be something we see occasionally.
(In case anyone cares or thinks it is relevant, I wish to note that I am a cisgender woman and I do not think that there are huge innate differences in men's and women's mentality — certainly nothing like on the level that testosterone/estrogen/etc levels would predict. I think most of the differences we do see are environmental, which is why these gaps have been closing in recent history — or widening in some cases/locations. Based on these trajectories, I suspect that men and women are actually FAR more similar than anyone natively groks, and that we exaggerate or invent small differences due to a biological hyperfixation with sex. Note that we don't obsess about the mental differences between, say, male and female cats, even though they have much greater sexual dimorphism than humans do.)
Is this true even if they were to have an average woman's level of estrogen? It may be that the brain needs either set of hormones to work effectively, and doesn't work well when lacking both (of course, gender transition HRT aims for this, but pretty much all undergoing it are trans and so aren't a good indication of average reaction to hormones for their chromosomal sex. And a cis person undergoing the same HRT isn't likely to enjoy the process)
They do. They have the average 60-year-old woman's level of estrogen.
If your study can't find those differences it's your study that's wrong, not that the differences don't exist.
Possibly, yes. But "common sense" is a very weak way of describing things here, because common sense is usually used to describe intuition, not knowledge. We are talking here about knowledge - men and women are different mentally, this isn't something unknown, or something requiring a study.
> since they're talking about structural and functional neurological differences
Given that there are obvious mental differences, and that most people don't believe in duality, that would imply there have to be neurological differences, if your study didn't find them, your study is faulty. Either that, or it's evidence for dualism.
The whole point of science is to double-check this sort of thing, the stuff "everyone knows" that seems obvious to casual observation, like that the earth is flat. Plus you're simply asserting and re-asserting that this is capital-K Knowledge, without providing any reasons, just banging the podium. That's not very convincing. This is anti-intellectualism.
> Given that there are obvious mental differences, and that most people don't believe in duality, that would imply there have to be neurological differences, if your study didn't find them, your study is faulty. Either that, or it's evidence for dualism.
Or maybe the differences are very social and contextual — men and women's brains largely operate the same way and are structured the same, but give different outputs because they're given different inputs — and the impacts of those social and contextual inputs are simply too fine-grained to show up.
> This is anti-intellectualism.
And what epithet would you give to those who pretend there is no difference?
> Or maybe the differences are very social and contextual
This is certainly an interesting idea (and one I've heard before). But you have to prove it. You can't just declare "I found no differences, therefor it must be a social difference".
The standard of evidence to declare this is very high, it requires actual proof not just a well reasoned argument.
And you will have to somehow explain all the evidence against this - for example in nordic countries they found that if they give the household enough money the wife prefers to stop working, and stay home. This went against their idea that men and women should be paid the same, and supported identically, because then women will want to work. Instead they found women actually preferred to be home, and they only wanted to work if they had to (i.e. not enough money). Men however had the opposite result.
So their goal of equal employment would require them to reduce support. I'm not sure what the government chose to do.
> are simply too fine-grained to show up.
Then your study is faulty and you should declare "invalid study", not "valid study we found nothing".
BTW, note how the article you cited doesn’t argue against differences between male and female brains but makes a rather pedantic point about “dimorphism”.