Sure, maybe it ought to be denoted in academic terms that in a particular geographical area that a particular linguistic form is reflective of certain socio-economic attributes of the speaker.

The comment I was responding to was deriving moral law from a "standard form" and shaming those who were grown or educated in an alternative form. In fact not just shaming, but proclaiming the righteousness of discrimination based upon one's dialect.

A linguist or sociologist would describe that some form does get used and discrimination happens because of it. But they would not be prescriptive in either, and especially not the latter.