Business Booms and Depressions Since 1775 (1943)
fraser.stlouisfed.org
fraser.stlouisfed.org
https://fraser.stlouisfed.org/files/docs/publications/1943ch...
Incredible visualization. Insane given they didn't have computer screens at the time.
What stands out the most to me is that the 30s were really, really bad. Way worse than anything that came before.
If you aren't adding to the discussion (e.g., by being obtuse) that's reason enough for a downvote. And underneath it all you're quite brashly making a false equivalence.
But if Russia really wants to stop being a pariah it can just give up its childish posturing, remove its troops from Ukraine and open up its economy, to the benefit of its own people. Sanctions aren’t reparations
Media murmuring isn't anything legally binding. Russia have plenty of leverage to sue for peace. Namely that this is a war of attrition and Russia has plenty of cannon fodder, exhausting Ukraine in the long run. If it means no more lives lost and the territory returns to pre-war borders, Ukraine would certainly sign without issuing debt.
But the Russian leadership has decided that it wants to usurp territory and be the villian, in full understanding of the consequences. After WWI, Germany had to pay ~550 billion dollars after being turned to rubble. That amount compounded with the depression generated enough unrest and bitterness to give Hitler a willing audience.
There really is no equivalence here.
And in any case, I think people really are failing to see the equivalence here, and it's scary. The suggestions to "just stop" (translation: "just lose") are actually serious. You'll have an economically crippled Russia with a wounded collective ego. Perfect setup for a rematch. Just like WW1 to WW2. But the normalizers have the majority opinion on their side at this point, and sadly nobody will stop them from making this tragedy a reality.
So: there really is an equivalence here, and sadly history teaches people nothing. This time they are right, dammit. With any luck, our grandkids will live to discuss how this was the biggest geopolitical miscalculation.
Don't think I have a point? Think about how everyone expected Russians to take to the streets and overthrow Putin back in 2022. The level of delusion is unreal.
Lose? You mean retreat to their own pre-war borders? To lose would be if they actually had to pay reparations or lost territory of their own. As I said, this would not be how the negotiations play out as Russia has the numbers to keep the war going as long as it wants.
But sure. Tell me what would be lost in Russia ending the war?
> Think about how everyone expected Russians to take to the streets and overthrow Putin back in 2022.
Who is going to try and overthrow the leader who disappears people? Everyone saw what happened to Prigozhin when he dissented. And of course, there are plenty of pro-war nationalists that would take Putin's place should he ever die. So I'm not sure what point you're trying to make here, or how it progresses your narrative of Russia as the victim in the conflict it started – at the economic and human cost to its own people – to take Ukraine territory.
To play devil's advocate: why doesn't the US stop now? There used to be a Ukraine entirely under Russia's control politically. Now there is a West Ukraine that is entirely dependent on the USA politically, has Black Sea access, has the oldest city in Russian history, has the oil and gas pipelines running through it (and so provides a way to continue to pressure Russia economically), and has a largely pro-West population. What is to be gained (other than pride) by forcing majority Russian-speaking lands that got accidentally attached to an entity named "Ukraine" to be part of this brave new world?
And before you go "but borders", let me point out that the reason behind many wars in Africa were borders that were arbitrarily drawn by the colonizers for their own convenience, and that often split up historically homogeneous tribes, or forced mortal enemies to be "the same country" (Harari has the details).
Finally, about the "who is going to try to overthrow Putin" point. It seems ridiculous now, but this is exactly what the media were selling back in 2022.
It was communism that fostered this independence movement of the eastern states, and it was the USSR that drew the arbitrary line soon after the revolution.
> What is to be gained (other than pride) by forcing majority Russian-speaking lands that got accidentally attached to an entity named "Ukraine" to be part of this brave new world?
If this really was Russia’s intent they wouldn’t have tried to take the entire country at the outset. And if this is some kind of liberation project for those long suffering Russian speaking minorities, I’m certain those being bombed aren’t welcome of it. There’s no noble intentions behind the inception of this war, but let’s say there was, those intentions seem to have since been contradicted by the human cost which Russia’s leadership has proven insensitive to
And who, pray tell, is dropping bombs on these people? (and has been since 2014). Hint: it is not Russia. So they absolutely do welcome the protection and make up the majority of the fighting force currently advancing on West Ukraine. What is actually happening is in effect a civil war.
Edit: to the downvoters: which is it that you disagree with? That a chunk of a population larger than 50% is not a minority, or that people don't generally bomb themselves?
Strawmanning again. That same census shows 17.3% of Ukraine identifies ethnically (or culturally) as Russian. But instead you want to split hairs.
> 58% in Crimea
Crimea is Russian in the pre-war border, and is irrelevant to this thread.
> whereas only 41% of those who identified as Ukrainian could actually speak Ukrainian
Kind of telling that non-Ukrainian speaking people are identifying as culturally as Ukrainian. It puts further doubt as to how much people inside the pre-war borders wanted to be 'liberated' by being usurped by Russia. Language != culture != nationality != support for annexation
All the same Sevastopol, which is the only majority Russian population in pre-war Ukraine that you mentioned, is not all of Ukraine. Very clearly Russia's play was for the whole country. The kind and noble angle you're presenting of Russia as liberator is either disingenuous, if you're trolling, or delusional, if you're being earnest.
> and make up the majority of the fighting force currently advancing on West Ukraine
Even if that's verifiable, there's no way of knowing how many are fighting by choice. Wouldn't be the first time Russians/USSR sent people to fight 'under pain of death'. And of course they aren't alone in this sort of conduct in war time.
> is dropping bombs on these people?
Both sides. Because of a war—I repeat once again—instigated by Russia. These populations wouldn't be caught in the crossfire of shifting battle fronts, if there was no... err.. battle.
So I'm done here. You aren't arguing in good faith, nor seem to yield to reason. Feel free to have the last reply.
America has done a good job at nation building in the New Ukraine. They built a new country in Israel's image: ethnocentric and very militarized, with a strong warrior ethos. But you just can't resist adding a Gaza Strip, can you?
This is like saying -- we just have to accept that England belongs to Italy because after all London was once known as Londinium and was one of the most important cities in the Roman Empire.
I also wasn't aware of any places named Kyivtown, Crimealand, or San Donetsko, and yet the US seems to have a claim to these places.
Does that mean it's still theirs essentially, and they're welcome to move back in any time they want to?
Second question: who did the wounding? Who do you think the average Russian thinks did the wounding?
Sure, that was my point.
> Second question: who did the wounding? Who do you think the average Russian thinks did the wounding?
It's... Hard for me to formulate a strong answer on this, but my impression is that Russia mostly did the wounding itself but the current average Russian probably blames either the reform attempts masking a power grab OR the west and the US for it's toils.
As for the second part, let me retell an anecdote. I was once at a party (in the US) with someone who participated in "helping" one of the post-Soviet republics with reforming their industry after perestroika. After too many drinks he began to brag about how "these corrupt businessmen thought they were hot sh... for grabbing all that stuff, little did they know they were just handing it to us". There were a ton of vultures feasting on the USSR's corpse. Now, the fact that it came to that in the first place is absolutely the Soviet leadership's fault.
And it is also ultimately the current Russian leadership's fault that Victoria Nuland even got around to handing out those cookies 10 years ago.
Keep in mind that Russia and the US are both nuclear powers, so that complicates things as neither Putin, Biden, or Zelensky want nukes being thrown around.
Between the US's actually functioning carriers, F-22s, modern tanks, and finally functional JSFs...I don't think Russia's untrained cannon fodder being supplied by civilian vans is going to win out.
That being said, the democratic countries in Eastern europe are tiny and most have a very small military presence. Without NATO, Russia could conceivably storm into those countries.
I don't think there is a good answer here. Either let Putin steamroll a chunk of Europe or spend a ton of additional taxpayer dollars. A little googling suggests the U.S. support for Ukraine is 1.5% of our federal budget, which is crazy high if you think about it.
Isolationism has its benefits and drawbacks of course.
Isn't it surprising how little this mountain of money achieves? It just slows down Russia at the unsustainable cost of Ukrainian lives.
Maybe US budget is so huge for other reasons than their military prowess? Maybe everything US does is just vastly overpriced for its value? Could American military be even more overpriced than American healtcare?
I think part of this is viewed as an ongoing expense where we're constantly giving someone weapons (Israel, Ukraine, whoever) in order to keep the Defense industry in business. It is a roundabout way to give our tax dollars to Raytheon and other firms without directly giving it to them.
Slowing down Russia at the cost of Ukrainian lives is a decision for them to make. You might feel differently if your country was being invaded. The US citizen should get a vote though if they're paying through taxes and inflation.
Overpriced? Almost certainly. Government isn't efficient. It's run much more efficiently than Russia or China though where much of the funding is siphoned off due to corruption. We don't appear to have that problem at least, although the Pentagon constantly failing audits is suspicious and something we do need to look into.
https://notesfrompoland.com/2023/07/21/poland-must-be-remind...
I could only find older expression of this sentiment towards Findland but I heard about it recently too, just didn't pinpoint the source and I can't find it now:
https://www.independent.co.uk/news/world/europe/vladimir-put...
In case of today's Russia, Ukrainian parade in NATO equipment on the Red Square should teach Russians clearly how hard they lost so their ambitions are crushed.
Putin started this because he thought Europe got defanged and is no longer a monster it used to be. But its demons were only asleep and Putin just woke up all of them.
It would be a great way to follow up on the success that was Afghanistan.
It was the effects of the Great Depression and internal politicking that gave power to Hitler. The Nazis hatred wasn't directed to the West that enacted that treaty, it was to the east for the Communists and the "subhuman" minorities.
No doubt Hitler had a lot of hate.
But this case is clearly a sign of revenge.
Besides the WWI loss they quickly attributed to "internal traitors" (Jews and leftists in general). Parades wouldn't change that.
Instead, after WWI it was pretty much business as usual and reparations felt like unfair toll of unfair, technical loss.
Giving away half of Germany to the Russians after WWII sent the right message.
That would be an ever greater insult. Instead of merely unfair, they'd be seen as both unfair and insulting - and threatening ("Our independency is at their mercy? Fuck them at the first opportunity we get!").
They lost a war, and got to suffer that as a consequence under postWW2 arrangments (and that was the light option, more like a slap on the wrist: they were also plans to fully deindustrialize and starve them to death https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Morgenthau_Plan ).
And they're building up a liking to fascism and national arrogance again in the last few decades. The Japanese too - which never repented for their attrocities to China either.
<https://archive.org/details/economicconseque00keyn/page/n5/m...>
The period since the industrial revolution has been anomalous in many respects in terms of population dynamics and public health, and I imagine it would show up somehow in economic trends? On the other hand going back further in time I assume it becomes increasingly difficult to scale things on some common metric.
<https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Angus_Maddison_statistics_of_t...>
<https://www.rug.nl/ggdc/historicaldevelopment/maddison/relea...>
Also, and this is just an eyeball analysis from the pdf, the booms seem roughly balanced with the busts until the great depression. The prosperity of WWI seems to have set up the cycle of bust for the great depression.
The water surface in the ocean is almost never at "sea level".
Markets are a chaotic system.
> the booms seem roughly balanced with the busts until the great depression
Yup. Like waves in the ocean!
> The prosperity of WWI seems to have set up the cycle of bust for the great depression.
The setup was to peg the dollar exchange rate with gold, and then inflate the money. Such "pegging" historically has always led to a massive correction.
> Markets are a chaotic system.
Don't blame the boom-and-bust in the US on markets. Their heavy-handed policies make them especially crisis prone. Their northern neighbour of Canada had much smoother sailing, thanks largely to a more laissez-faire approach to banking.
Seems a non sequitur at best.
Also a lot of the policy mistake in the US were made at the state level, and that is comparable in scale with Canada.
In any case, it's easy to compare different economies, as long as you are careful what you are doing. And, if anything, overseas demand for your currency should make it easier to run your monetary and financial system.
I'd expect it to be "at sea level" though with very small averaging (smoothing) to account for the waves.
The economic plots however would amount to Everest-sized waves.
Iirc that is exactly the problem that the Soviets claimed they solved with state-owned and centrally planned production, no more boom/bust cycle. And early on it did have some in the West worried about it. Turned out not to work, probably b/c you can't stablize an inherently unstable complex system.
I recommend the excellent novelization of the period “Red Plenty”. My understanding is that it stays fairly true to the history.
What do you mean by "never really tried it"? This was a state that set production quotas, dictated prices, and set priorities in 5 year intervals. What more could they have done? The fact that even a regime that was willing to starve and enslave its own people could not make a planned economy work, just shows the futility of the approach.
Especially large corpos developed more and more similarities to how eastern bloc countries were operated, believe it or not. Very top down decision making (with all the problems), large bureaucracies, people who are employed but effectively don't do anything ("bullshit jobs" / David Graeber), company propaganda (all hail to the great company!), bothersome people getting "mistreated", and so on. I've experienced the eastern bloc from inside and I'm not sure whether I should laugh about or be terribly afraid of the things that are still to come. Edit: Forgot one big thing: Metrics / quotas.
The other thing to keep in mind that "responsibilities" were split between members of the eastern bloc and the decisions who took over what that were often influenced by all kinds of things, just not what made most sense.
There was also huge trade embargo, CoCom, in place.
I think the commenter was referring to a supposedly accurate historical fiction book that describes how the system was never truly working in an honest fashion. I have a colleague that worked in optimization in the Soviet Union and he explained that factories would lie about their data in order to look better and essentially you'd have garbage in and garbage out for the models. So we don't know if the linear programming tools were truly broken or if it was because all the input data was corrupted. I think the book said the same thing.
Like you, I've become fairly suspicious of economic models that attempt to explain something complex and unstable like an economy. Equilibrium is an exception in the real world...not an inevitability and the caveats of that model are often discarded.
Obviously: not have different political factions and concerns from individual officials to "look good" affect the content of those plans, nor have the same factions and concerns distort the reports about the state of production and the results of said plans.
And instead to try what they purported to be doing but didn't do: plan solely based on optimization concerns, and get back non purposefully-distorted reports so that they can re-plan and course-correct as needed.
Btw, those "five year plans" are not what people think, which usually involves a mental picture of someone calculating the amount of desired production of X or Y product for the next five years and setting some prices in stone.
They rather were sets of goals and associated organized efforts on multiple fronts to meet them. Like "let's industrialize that province" or "let's build transport infrastructure", etc.
Like current multi-year "initiatives" or often still call "plans" like "The Biden- Harris Plan to Revitalize American Manufacturing and Secure Critical Supply Chains in 2022"
https://www.whitehouse.gov/briefing-room/statements-releases...
or those regarding broadband access, or the federal plan to "land a man on the moon" back in 1960.
Workable at tiny scale in religious communes, or maybe for a different species.
It wouldn't be a perfect system, but like capitalism the competition would force everyone into relative honesty. It is pretty weird they didn't do that at the time though, considering the KGB kinda had that sort of setup with respect to everyone individually being required to snitch on each other.
Or automate the reporting (totally feasible in 2024).
I disagree with this way of thinking. A willingness to apply lots of cruelty to an attempt doesn’t make up for a lack of skill or capabilities. Cruelty is often a failure-mode, not a recipe for success.
Or because they didn't have enough computing power at the time
https://chris-said.io/2016/05/11/optimizing-things-in-the-us....
You might be able to plan, but what about the advancements that nobody would plan for.
“Don’t build a faster horse”
Would a communist system ever advance beyond the planned scientific and enginnering goals? Is there someone thinking “what people need doesn’t exist?” and actually direct resources to it?
That’s the beauty of the the free market system - you can come up with a crazy idea and just do it. You often fail, but if you succeed, the risk you took is rewarded.
I can’t ever see a communist system coming up with an iPhone. They might copy an existing product, but that’s not innovation.
Soviets invented a lot of things, in terms of aviation, computers, celestial navigation in intercontinental missiles. There was also an article, which I read recently but failed to find it now, about how they revolutionized mechanical watches, and came out with their own quartz movements, without copying anyone.
Oh lastly, they did the "iPhone of sea going vehicles", the erkanoplan, and VLIW computing which led us to Itanium at some point [0].
https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=40365956
While the title is provocatively titled, "How the Soviets revolutionized wristwatches", it seems to be more of a play on words around the Soviet revolution. The article is about how they bought watchmaking equipment from the US, looted machinery from Germany after WWII, and copied swiss designs.
Soviet watches were workhorses, but not revolutionary at all.
You obviously adjust the plan? Planning was never supposed to be some static system (and the "5 year plans" are not about market planning, they were more like "5 year initiatives to improve this or that aspect", e.g. "develop more tank making capacity", or "take a man to the moon").
>I can’t ever see a communist system coming up with an iPhone.
Communists came up lots of inventions.
“Let’s develop a product nobody asked for”
And I’m happy to take a look at this list of “lots of inventions communists came up with” if you want to point me to them.
After reading Taleb, these "boom or bust" cycles are a feature not a bug. My own simplified interpretation: You need booms to fund moonshot ideas and busts to get rid of ideas that don't work. Also a bit similar to neural network training. You first pump in all kinds of information and then aggressively prune to get rid of mostly bad information.
Trends, Hypes and Bubbles are probably a consequence of human nature: most investors have a deep fear-of-missing out, so in general money loves to jump on the hype-train. Likewise, fear and uncertainty easily spread: markets moving together. When a couple of businesses fail, that insolvency or illiquidity spreads to related businesses.
What "business volume scale" means or how it is measured, however, I don't see specified anywhere, and after an admittedly cursory web search plus FRASER search of 20 minutes or so, I can't figure it out. The text blurb for "business activity" seems to mean it is probably some aggregation of industrial production and consumer spending, but what 0 is indexed to and what the deviations mean is less clear.
And do you even want stability? The boom cycle produces exuberance that allows funding risky projects of which a small number become smashing success. The bust destroys the rest of risky project, which allows recycling of labor and resources. Arguably this is a better model for economic advancement, compared to a steady state where stagnating businesses continue to stagnate, hoarding resources in under-productive pursuits.
It's easiest to see this in side by side charts. The magnitude of stock market losses and economic data was tracking almost exactly with the great depression, until the central banks intervened.
Global stock markets: https://cepr.org/sites/default/files/styles/flexible_wysiwyg...
U.S. Unemployment: https://obamawhitehouse.archives.gov/sites/whitehouse.gov/fi...
Global Industrial production: https://cepr.org/sites/default/files/styles/flexible_wysiwyg...
We're still feeling ripple effects from 2008, but things aren't nearly as bas as they could have been.
That fiscal policy prevented collapse in 2008 by creating an unimaginably large asset bubble we're still living in.
> We're still feeling ripple effects from 2008, but things aren't nearly as bas as they could have been.
Those aren't ripple effects, it's the strain from an unsustainable "solution" to a crisis we still haven't really felt yet.
Compare unemployment in the Great Depression vs Great Recession:
https://i.imgur.com/pjyczeq.png
Fiscal policy certainly did help, but the Great Recession probably would have still been significantly smaller than the Great Depression for several reasons.
(I suspect the Great Recession is more analogous to the Long Depression of the late 19th century, in that both of them significantly worsened inequality, while the Great Depression reduced inequality. I suspect whenever the US starts dealing with its mountain of debt, the resulting recession/panic/depression will also reduce inequality, though I doubt too many people will be cheering that when it happens).
The second chart I linked does exactly that. The point is to not look at the absolute numbers because, the unemployment trend in 2008 was reversed by fiscal policy, but during the great depression there was no such intervention.
Until the central banks intervened, unemployment was tracking almost exactly with the great depression.
You also can't compare the absolute unemployment numbers for a lot of other reasons. A major one is that unemployment (The U6 number, i.e. "real unemployment") in the first half of the century was consistently 10%+ higher than it is today. That's because of less women in the workforce.
In 1929, the workforce was considered fully employed with an unemployment rate (U6) of 15%. In 2008, we considered a fully employed workforce to be just 5% unemployment.
But even the non-rich acquire more wealth over time as well.
Reasons include:
* Children inherit wealth and knowledge of how to build wealth
* The children are doing this rather than trying to leetcode to get their first job (or rack up debt to get qualified for it etc.)
* Connections
* Compounding (despite corrections)
* Political influcence
* Can afford to hire tax/law people to avoid tax
* Tax law favours the rich. You pay no tax on a billion in capital gains if you never sell and if that yields you 50m you pay tax on that but let’s say it is half so 25m that is 2.5% of the wealth but if it goes up 75m over the same period that is tax free so you paid 20% tax on the increase in net worth. Compare that to a worker. And this is without doing any tax avoidance!
* To avoid tax at all in the previous example get the corp to buy back shares instead of paying dividends then live off borrowed money.
that knowledge is so important. When i was a kid all I was told over and over was "get a good job in an office so you don't have to work like i do". This was coming from blue collar oil and ranch hands in West Texas so that's what i did and it's worked out pretty well for me. However, I'm teaching my kids how to build wealth and that a well-paying job is an income stream to assist with that but not the whole answer.
the stressors actually strengthen which is why I brought up Taleb.
But how long the downturns last is a policy choice:
> I would summarize the Keynesian view in terms of four points:
> 1. Economies sometimes produce much less than they could, and employ many fewer workers than they should, because there just isn’t enough spending. Such episodes can happen for a variety of reasons; the question is how to respond.
> 2. There are normally forces that tend to push the economy back toward full employment. But they work slowly; a hands-off policy toward depressed economies means accepting a long, unnecessary period of pain.
> 3. It is often possible to drastically shorten this period of pain and greatly reduce the human and financial losses by “printing money”, using the central bank’s power of currency creation to push interest rates down.
> 4. Sometimes, however, monetary policy loses its effectiveness, especially when rates are close to zero. In that case temporary deficit spending can provide a useful boost. And conversely, fiscal austerity in a depressed economy imposes large economic losses.
* https://archive.nytimes.com/krugman.blogs.nytimes.com/2015/0...
Maybe I'm projecting, but you say this like it's just a fact and that there are no tradeoffs. Keynes was a smart guy, but his word isn't gospel. It's not as simple as printing money to reduce interest rates and then magically depressions end. Printing money and lowering rates can easily lead to inflation (which would make everyone even worse off than they already are) if other underlying issues aren't addressed. We're literally seeing that in real time with economic policies form 2020-today.
So yea policy can influence how long they last, but that goes for both directions (shortening or lengthening/making worse). Striking the right balance to like "optimally" shorten/ease a depression is incredibly hard, and (shocker) tends sows the seeds of future economic downturns.
There is very likely no policy that eliminates the cyclic nature of markets/economies; it's inherent to (essentially required for) how they function.
Is this true though? Doesn't inflation just redistribute wealth rather than destroy it? We measure inflation through change in prices which are just a measure of supply and demand (dis)equilibrium, I thought.
Uncontrolled, unpredictable inflation (40%)(Zimbabwe, Turkey) is the problem as it incurs more costs on updating prices and renegotiating contracts, which introduces severe distortions on the economy. But we're not anywhere near that.
My beef with it is that it doesn't seem to be a sustainable system in the long term just like the previous system also had issues. We didn't have a great depression in 2008 (a very nasty recession instead), but the quantitative easing then and during Covid is driving inflation wild. The official numbers are generally fine, but they don't include all sorts of items that have gone up an incredible amount and are thus misleading. I'm sure some of it is corporate greed or standard supply/demand (e.g. a wood manufacturing plant going offline making construction material costs soar), but a lot seems to be because of the insanely high printing of money that has to be carried out in order to inflate away the massive runaway national debt.
So the Keynesian toolbox that can be used to get us out of something like a depression also is ultimately our downfall in the long run as our leaders can't or won't use it responsibly.
There's a blip now because of the pandemic policies - hand people a bunch of cash to sit at home which means less goods made, let them out again where they can spend it - prices go up. I'm not sure that's Keynes fault - he never had a covid policy.
It's hard to resist and not to always print money, not just occasionally, and not to (just about) always run a large deficit, not just occasionally, and not fund petty hobbies - not just productive infrastructure - with borrowing.
At that point it stops being Keynes (stimulus) spending and just becomes spending.
The point of Keynes, especially in light of when he originally wrote (the 1930s), is to boost demand to help an economy get back on its feet. Once it's running fine then the "extra" spending can be dialled back.
Of course there could be other reasons why government wants to continue (deficit) spending, but those are separate from Keynesian stimulus.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Business_cycle
you could be right too, rando, I'm willing to accept a little column A, a little column B.
If it is a cycle, you can make an easy fortune on the stock market.
If the system doesn't break, then clearly the crisis wasn't big enough just yet... but eventually it's going to break!
What part of the chart shows this?
1. pegging the dollar to gold
2. inflating the dollar
3. having the Fed set the money supply by fiat rather than the pre-1914 way of letting the market forces do it
The reason countries have a central bank is so they can inflate the currency.
You never hear it anymore.
Hoover Dam, Golden Gate Bridge etc are nice takeaway of that generosity frenzy. Too bad during COVID gov just gave cash, not getting any infrastructure in return.
And canals:
* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Canal_Mania
And railroads:
* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Railway_Mania
And a whole bunch of other things:
* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Technological_Revolutions_and_...
Getting overly excited about things seems to just be a thin humans tend to do.
When your money becomes more valuable if you don't spend it, people spend less, which depressed prices further, so people spend even less, which even further depresses prices.
That said, the fact that austerity has been tried recently suggests the perverse impulse to respond to deflation with belt tightening instead of expanding credit is still with us. But all we have to do is just print money to match the deflation. The 1990s through 2019 are a great example, there was constant economic deflation because of new technology and the fed just printed credit like crazy to match said deflation and keep the inflation at 2pct.
The pie was getting bigger, so eroding the value of each slice to make it a smaller portion of the pie kept slice sizes stable while not making anyone lose pie.
They had an easy time with that. Now that the pandemic caused real eocnomic inflation due to supply shocks, dealing with excess inflation is a lot harder. The only way to keep pie slice size stable is to take away pie from someone and nobody wants be the loser, so capital and labor are in a game of chicken to see who blinks first and has to eat more of the inflation.
There's no rational basis for the 2pct inflation target [1], it's entirely baseless, in some sense it's now a matter of conservatism, mere tradition from a random fad decision in the 90s.
And the point is that monetary expansion directs the energy of the economy and effectively steals savings, forcing the economic energy of people into consumerism and CEOs pockets.
Except that it seems to work.
Hitting an inflation rate of exactly 0% is practically impossible: you're going to be either a little high, or a little low. So the option is: do you want "too high" or "too low" (negative)?
In the last little while how we've all seen how painful high(er) inflation is for people. Lessons from periods of the 1930s (and others in the linked-to PDF) show how bad deflation is.
A "little" high seems to have been a pretty good compromise.
Any common person realizes their ability to lead a dignified life is being squeezed out by monetary expansion gone amok, with those closest to the govt spigot getting the benefits and none of the costs (cantillon effect).
And it brings up a good point which no one answers satisfyingly: why shouldn't the average person just enjoy price savings produced by technology?
The 1930s were nothing special when it comes to wild swings in prices (as the article show), speculation was not new (see canal mania, railroad mania, etc)
* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Canal_Mania
* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Railway_Mania
What is special is the post-WW2 era (where there was no deflationary bust, especially after a major war), and the decades that followed (when there was no gold standard to handcuff monetary policy, and when Keynesian economics allowed for fiscal flexibility).
> And it brings up a good point which no one answers satisfyingly: why shouldn't the average person just enjoy price savings produced by technology?
There's a difference between deflation through innovation, and deflation through economic turmoil (e.g., mass unemployment, collapse of aggregate demand).
One of my favourite examples of 'invisible deflation' that no one notices (often while they're complaining about inflation) is a 1991 Radio Shack ad:
* https://www.huffpost.com/entry/radio-shack-ad_b_4612973
* Via: https://awealthofcommonsense.com/2021/01/inflation-truthers/
I realize that the two manias were forms of speculation, and that getting overly excited about things seems to just be a thing humans tend to do.
* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Technological_Revolutions_and_...
human nature is to avoid discipline when they're comfortable and set the stage for a bubble & contraction, exactly what happens with artificially low interest rates and speculations like the manias you brought up
What you're describing wasn't their goal, they have been keeping interest rates at ~0% since the late 90s to avoid deflation and to stimulate the economy (and therefore increase inflation) with limited success.
It is been their policy and their desire to get out of the situation that you describe, and not to be living in it:
* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Abenomics
They want(ed) to hit higher inflation:
> Under Kuroda, the BOJ deployed a huge asset-buying programme in 2013, originally aimed at firing up inflation to a 2% target within roughly two years.
> The central bank introduced negative rates and YCC in 2016 as tepid inflation forced it to tweak its stimulus programme to a more sustainable one.
* https://www.reuters.com/markets/asia/japan-poised-end-negati...
I'd still like to know according to who. Practically everyone agrees the economy is worsening for average people during many decades of nearly universal control by "mainstream" economists, advisors and bureaucrats.
Look at the chart that this story is about: when things go negative, what do you think happened to people's employment opportunities? What do you think happened to their debts (deflation makes it worse)?
Do you want to perhaps look at the economic historical record of the ~80 years before 1945:
* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Panic_of_1910–1911
* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Panic_of_1901
* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Panic_of_1896
* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Panic_of_1896
* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Panic_of_1893
* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Panic_of_1873
There have not been as near as many widespread economic collapses post-WW2 as there were pre-WW2. 2008 is probably the only one that came even close.
The main contributor to the working class getting a raw deal since the ~1970s is (IMHO) the idea of shareholder value (primacy):
Deflation benefits those who have a lot of capital and can invest it into ~ zero risk instruments like government bonds the most (e.g. that's basically how the rentier/aristocratic class in the 19th Britain were able to maintain their lifestyle without doing anything productive, government bonds were yielding 4-5% while the value of their capital was going up due to near continues deflation throughout much of the century).
On the other hand if you're a heavily mortgaged farmer you were basically screwed if the price food went down (that's why free-silver/loose monetary policy was so popular amongst farmers back in the 1800s in the Midwest and in much of US).
Deflation means that people's debt becomes more of a burden. I'd hazard to guess that poor people have more debt that rich, and so deflation would be worse for the poor.
And if you say "wages won't go down", then you're expecting that everything else goes down (including the price of whatever your employer makes), but your wages magically won't? It would be nice... but don't hold your breath.
However, no company is going to do that the other way around - if their revenues fall, they will either cut wages or fire people in order to still be profitable, so deflation should show up faster in loss of buying power too. Companies don't generally just accept lower profits, and shareholders especially do not accept this.
The market is locked up. How many families are making 133k+ a year to make the 3x rule for a 400k tiny townhome? The US Census reports the average household income is 75k.
The Feds and Deep State have played with people's lives for too long, pretending like they can offer security and order. In reality, they've screwed over the middle class.
> Most of the time, deflation is unambiguously a positive trend for the economy, but it can also under certain conditions occur along with a contraction in the economy.
[0] https://www.investopedia.com/articles/personal-finance/03091...
Obviously there are situations where it is good and for certain people, say a right sizing of an overheating economy/sector but on the whole, and more generally, it is bad, not something you look to as fine or alright.
"A little bit of deflation is a product of, and good for, economic growth. But, in the case of an economy-wide, central bank-fueled debt bubble followed by debt deflation when the bubble bursts, rapidly falling prices can go hand-in-hand with a financial crisis and recession."
This is what I'm saying.
They're just saying in our debt fueled world, you can't merely print money to get out of jail free in a deflationary scenario as eventually the debt obligation gets too large relative to your shrinking economy size. We live in this world unfortunately where it's bad, in a hypothetical world without all the debt, it's still bad in the long term for the other reasons I've mentioned.
It depends on how deflation comes about. Technological innovation? Pretty good as the 1991 Radio Shack ad illustrates:
* https://www.huffpost.com/entry/radio-shack-ad_b_4612973
Through a collapse of economic activity and mass unemployment? Not so good.
Isn't it usually? Such as the housing price deflation of 2008-2011.
These nominal agreements are significantly less flexible than real-valued ones; people are much more able to buy fewer steak dinners when they're $20 instead of $15, and much less able to stay in their house when their paycheck is $1500 instead of $2000.
That doesn't mean anything. People talk about god/gods all the time, it doesn't mean they are real or exist.
Inflation/Deflation are meaningless without linking them to the system in question. Growth also, in my opinion, has little to do with inflation/deflation and more about the positive inflow of energy into the economy.
So we mostly kept the same system, but tried to tweak them to make deflation 1) much rarer and 2) less destructive.
Look at the Panic of 1893, the Panic of 1907, and the Great Depression. If that's not enough, there are several others.
Deflation is good, it means cheaper prices. A deflationary spiral due to insufficient money supply despite robust economic fundamentals can be really bad in theory sure, but it can't happen unless the monetary authorities are totally negligent and incompetent, as happened in the great depression. All you have to do is print more money and problem solved. We don't expect it to happen again because we learned from it.
Or if you do not have monetary policy flexibility, like when you're on the Gold Standard, as happened in the Great Depression (until FDR went off of it).
See Bernanke and James (1990):
> However, Temin (1989) argues that, once these destabiliz- ing policy measures had been taken, little could be done to avert deflation and depression, given the commitment of central banks to maintenance of the gold standard. Once the deflationary process had begun, central banks engaged in competitive deflation and a scramble for gold, hoping by raising cover ratios to protect their currencies against speculative attack. Attempts by any individ- ual central bank to reflate were met by immediate gold outflows, which forced the central bank to raise its discount rate and deflate once again. According to Temin, even the United States, with its large gold reserves, faced this con- straint. Thus Temin disagrees with the suggestion of Friedman and Schwartz (1963) that the Federal Reserve's failure to protect the U.S. money supply was due to misunderstanding of the problem or a lack of leadership; instead, he claims, given the commitment to the gold standard (and, presumably, the ab- sence of effective central bank cooperation), the Fed had little choice but to let the banks fail and the money supply fall.
* https://www.nber.org/system/files/chapters/c11482/c11482.pdf
For a fuller treatment, see Eichengreen:
> This book offers a reassessment of the international monetary problems that led to the global economic crisis of the 1930s. It explores the connections between the gold standard--the framework regulating international monetary affairs until 1931--and the Great Depression that broke out in 1929. Eichengreen shows how economic policies, in conjunction with the imbalances created by World War I, gave rise to the global crisis of the 1930s. He demonstrates that the gold standard fundamentally constrained the economic policies that were pursued and that it was largely responsible for creating the unstable economic environment on which those policies acted. The book also provides a valuable perspective on the economic policies of the post-World War II period and their consequences.
* https://www.goodreads.com/en/book/show/775143
Following the rules of the gold standard is what caused the initial "negligent and incompetent" action. Of course later (1937) on they raised rates too soon (and the government dialled back deficit spending), which caused an economic slowdown.
It was not until the giant stimulus packaged often referred to as "World War Two" that the economy picked up again.
I look forward to minimum wage jobs being 25 dollars an hour, and still poverty wages - because then the debts I have will be roughly half what they are now in constant dollars.
Just a reminder for those not in-the-know: https://www.propublica.org/article/billionaires-tax-avoidanc...
I do think we should tax borrowing on securities though.
I think we should outlaw billionaires. The idea that a sole individual could hold so much economic, societal, and political power is totally fucking insane.
$5 million, to someone that rich, is like $50 dollars to us. It's chump change you might find laying around your house.
It can also unwind just as quickly if you need to pay those debts back in a hurry, causing your asset prices to tumble on the way down. But if you're big and have borrowed enough money, whole jobs and industries will be dependent on your continued solvency, and so you can sometimes maneuver to put the public on the hook.
You avoid taxes by not getting cash in a tax inefficient way (income, capital gains) and instead you get it in loans (which can be tax deductible!)
Then when an event happens that allows you to pull cash efficiently (capital losses, inheritance asset step up etc) you service the loan.
Your lender is happy to do this both because the loans are fully backed by real assets and they want to sell you or your businesses other services.
This also works out for unsecured debt too largely.
The '80s homebuyer did great on their purchase, but not because borrowing at 20% was such a steal. They profited because their home subsequently went up in price faster than inflation did.
See Japan for the last 3 decades!
But is that because of their economic policy or because of social norms?
> It might not look good according to metrics that optimize ploughing society's wealth into the hands of a few billionaires […]
Sweden also has a pretty good standard of living, less inequality than the US, decent economic growth (better than JP, lower than US), and has more billionaires on a per capita basis than the US:
* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_number_of...
You think the distribution of living standards across a population could be a matter of social norms? How?
Taxation and social programs:
* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Redistribution_of_income_and_w...
People choose to vote for / elect people who are willing to implement various policies to achieve it. What is acceptable to the population is (partly?) determined by the norms of that population and society, and the acceptance of various ideas will determine what politicians will campaign for.
Social norms come first, and they determine which economic policies you are willing to even consider (and then implement or not).
Japan's economic system has been under Japanese control and self-determined (for both good and ill) for decades:
* https://www.goodreads.com/book/show/16144575-how-asia-works
False. A monetary policy that prioritizes universal access to basic needs leads to less overall crime. It may not be sufficient, but it is a major factor[1].
Clearly, I am not a monetary policy buff, but certainly I've heard people talk about the US getting off of the gold standard in 1971. When the currency is by policy backed by something, you can't just print money (unless you dig a new mine, I suppose), right? When I google around for what our policy was in the 1920s, I see that it was a bit complicated in that many countries suspended the gold standard during WWI and in some cases there were pegged exchange rates, and the US intervened in gold imports.
They didn’t go together, the chart shows two severe episodes of deflation, one of which was the Great Depression, and the other was this:
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Depression_of_1920%E2%80%931...
It’s not clear why the chart lumps them into one period.
Because most modern economists are state-funded and the state benefits handsomely from the ability to print money. If you look back before economics got institutionalised you'll see a consensus that inflation is far worse than depression; plenty of states have been destroyed by debasement of the money supply (as far back as the Roman Empire artificially devaluing its currency leading up to its collapse), but there hasn't been a single one destroyed by the value of its people's money increasing.
Because deflation can only be transitionary; people need food and housing and other necessities, so there's a limit to how much they can reduce spending, and once that limit is reached the economy has just shifted to a new equilibrium, one with less spending and more savings than before. Inflation on the other hand (when it's caused by printing money/defacing the currency) has the power to destroy 100% of the populace's wealth, as we saw in Weimar Germany and Zimbabwe.
a) It was a correction to the very unusual war years, which saw unprecedented levels of government investments, price controls, and money printing
b) It also led to a lot of money getting invested in dubious overseas markets, which directly led to the Great Depression
Not to mention -1% is not a "plunge", it is well within the normal variance.
- OXPC: Over-expansion of productive capacity
- Contraction of credit
- Contraction of demand
- Knock-on effects of layoffs harming other sectors
1837 and 1873 appear to be bubbles bursting (maybe) - is every sudden downswing a literal, practical panic?
And why are the upswings just as sharp? What is happening practically during those moments that make the swings so sudden compared to economic activity "during" a prosperous or downturn period?
Everything is usually sunshine and roses until it's not, and then things stay conservative until there's some sort of all clear.
There's only millions that lose their jobs and homes, and sometimes their accents. There's only millions that die in their bloody wars, it's alright. It's only their lives and the lives of their next of kin that they are losing. Don't worry, be happy, things will get better naturally. Don't worry, shut up, sit down, go with it and be happy.
Thanks to Stereolab!
Actually, it is/was: post-WW2 there was no deflationary period.
And in general, post-WW2, wild swings as illustrated rarely happened. This is because we have monetary flexibility (i.e., no gold standard) and fiscal tools (Keynesian economics).
Not surprising though. It's a well known fact that debt/leverage increases volatility. What the Fed did is remove the limits which constrained the amount of debt in the system... For all we know, we could have been living an inefficient economic lie for 30 years and not realize it so long as new debts are taken out faster than the old ones are repaid... But what about when the borrowing slows down? Where will debtors find the liquidity if not from freshly injected credit? That's what's been happening over the past few decades. New borrowers monetizing the pyramid schemes of old borrowers... What happens when the economy runs out of suckers to enter at the bottom of the pyramid and the government is in perma-bailout mode. Zimbabwe rings a bell.