Great-Grandparent> most M&A transactions trend to have a 30% premium above the trading price. I [...] could not find a good explanation to why
You> It’s probably just a good rule of thumb.
Me> But why is 30% better than 15%?
You> The equilibrium appears to be 30% above asking
I still don't understand how that's supposed to explain why 30% is the stable value, instead of another, as the GGP was asking. How does what you are saying add anything more than "It is what it is" to the discussion?