Why would you use revenue and not net profit for this calculation?
For years Amazon was one of the biggest companies in the world while never making a profit. If it engaged in wrongdoing should they have been given a fine of 0$ (or negative I guess) since they weren't profitable?
They're saying it's unusual to use revenue to talk about how easily a company could pay a fine, given that (cashflow cleverness aside) your revenue doesn't determine your ability to pay for arbitary extras.
In reality neither does net profit, as nonessentials and comp tend to consume just enough to leave a profitability which keeps shareholders happy.
X dollars/day ÷ Y dollars = 1/days (so, the answer is inverted)