Unless they're somehow 110 times better than everyone else, this indicates some powerful nepotism.
If one person consistently runs 0.1s faster than everyone else, they can win 100x the races of the next best person without being 100x better.
Nobel prizes, like running races, are winner take all. The person in 100th place doesn't get any points proportional to how good their proposal is.
But if you consider it this way: The Nobel price was given mostly to white people (including Jews) until about 1970. That's a factor of 10 already.
Then you consider that Ashkenazi Jews have an average IQ of about 115 vs other Europeans somewhere south of 100 on average.
If the standard deviation is a constant 15, a population with a mean of 100 has about 0.4% of the population with an IQ >140. Increase the mean to 115, and that grows to about 5%. That's another factor of 10. And the gap widens as the threshold increases.
This seems to fit the 110x almost perfectly.
Disclaimer: I have no Jewish ancestry that I'm aware of.
Edit: Also, to my knowledge, the Nobel committee has NOT been dominated by Jews.
Most Nobel Laureates in the sciences are highly intelligent, so they exist on that tail.
Basically, if you sample from the top 13% from a normal distribution with (mean, std)=(100,15) you get fewer with 140+ than if you sample from one with (mean, std)=(115,15), and the higher the intelligence, the bigger the difference will be.
This follows from the squaring of the exponential term in the standard distribution.
While it's possible that the shape or standard deviations for various population doesn't match my assumptions, but if they do, the observed number of Nobel prizes given to Jews is very close to what one would expect.