Maybe one of the downvoters would like to explain why he / she finds this question so emotionally triggering.
Maybe one of the downvoters would like to explain why he / she finds this question so emotionally triggering.
I think in at least some people the mRNA vaccines appear to work by suppressing symptoms (which also explains Pfizer's 95% effective, in that trial they only tested people who actually showed symptoms first), but actually they allow the virus to run rampant when the person is eventually infected. So the association is with the virus instead of the vaccines, and they assume it would have been worse without when we just really don't know.
Coming back to your point, is it possible that my family member - just by pure coincidence - happened to get covid immediately after each shot? 4 times?