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According to the CDC, no. But obviously they are closely related.

I don’t think suicide statistics include cases like this.

1. Obviously the CDC won't count those as suicide

2. In general, making a distinction between intentional self-harm and self-harm due to recklessness can be useful in some instances.

2. How would you? Where's the point where the one becomes the other?

(rhetoric question)

You cannot define intention like that, because then it could be applied to almost anything, for example, extreme overeating.