https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lead–crime_hypothesis#Correlat...
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lead–crime_hypothesis#Correlat...
https://www.themarshallproject.org/2023/11/03/violent-crime-...
Whichever way that data is cut, though, pre-2000 and in particular mid 70s "peak lead" crime levels are far and away worse than those of the past two decades.
Edit: why disagree? I can claim that the size of the standard Hersey bar had a positive correlation over that time too. That doesn't mean there's a convincing causative mechanism. Most of the studies linking lead to crime rely on poor data practices, such as testing blood levels of convicted criminals. There are very easy explainations to show bias here, such as smarter criminals being less likely to be convinced and criminals with higher blood levels tending to have lower IQs. Many exclude certain areas like DC or NYC in their analysis or the trend disappeared. Many used state level data points which are not granular enough to investigate causative effect (eg median income at the state level is not useful. You need to investigate it at the individual level. Things like localized cost of living and standard of living would also be more useful numbers). The designs and data are sloppy as hell in my opinion.
It's just that meta-analysis over many studies seems to show that it is a contributor to crime. When it is removed from the environment, it then shows up in the crime data.
many studies seems to show that it is a contributor to crime."
This seems contradictory. How can it not cause violent crime yet be a causative factor?
I can see how it might be correlated. But I've never heard a compelling argument for how it would be causative.on any significant level.
Edit: It's worth noting that the study described by the OP does not demonstrate an effect on IQ. They estimate population-wide lead exposure. The lost IQ point calculation is based on correlation coefficients obtained through observational studies.