I mean, it was a response to people saying it was ok to desecrate a corpse because they’re dead and won’t know about it. So where do these people draw the line? If it’s OK to desecrate a corpse but necrophilia is “too far” then what is their argument?

The corpse doesn’t know if it was desecrated nor does it know if it was subject to necrophilia. So if desecrating a corpse is “ok” according to the above commentators, why is necrophilia not ok too? And if necrophilia is not ok, then perhaps there’s a flaw in their argument.

That is, some things are morally wrong, even if there is no apparent “victim” as the victim is dead.