Scholarly English grammars and dictionaries are exclusively descriptive.
https://www.linguisticsociety.org/resource/what-correct-lang...
E.g. "Redneck English" perhaps.
Is the author implying that African Americans wouldn't be able to do that? Isn't that implication a bit racist in itself?
E.g. are they saying that given a professional context they wouldn't be able to use the Standard English?
I have seen plenty of African Americans or any race be able to speak grammatically decent standard English, wherever they are from.
The whole thing feels like trying to trick the LLMs. If they were to use slang or private conversations of anyone versus standard American English it would be perceived as lower int/lazy.
And a good follow on would be, if not, why was only one and how/why was it selected?
Just my first thought about the article is that it is doing this "think of the children" type of thing to make a case for recalling something that is really useful for many people.
So I would imagine that any deviation of this expected norm would yield in a result that might be perceived as more "stupid or lazy", whether it's street dialect, US southern, redneck dialect, teenager dialect, mix with other languages or otherwise.
So my point is - that it's measuring a correlation from the standard, professional, business English, rather than it being anything to do with racism.