Shouldn't that be a solved problem? How were English children taught to read 100 years ago? 150 years ago?
something scholarly-looking claims there was 90% literacy rate in England in 1870: https://sites.udel.edu/britlitwiki/education-in-victorian-en....
I've learned English as a second (actually fourth) language, and it was definitely weird (the previous ones, including my mother tongue are almost fully phonetic, i.e. much easier to read) - I guess it must be different when learned as a first?