I'd be really interested what this work would look like. Koch's Postulates have always made logical sense to me and I've never understood why they where abandoned for virology. How can we prove a high likelihood of causation when at best we only have data of hosts that already showed signs of disease?
Aside - this thread seems to have gone down a rabbit hole where many are assuming I'm claiming viruses don't exist or don't cause disease. I get that viruses have been made a political topic these days, but I'm only raising that as far as I'm aware viruses have never been isolated in the same way as bacteria or fungi. We've never, again as far as I'm aware, isolated a virus from a sick person, exposed a healthy person to it, and seen the same disease symptoms show up with the virus now present in their system.
One could point to vaccines for this proof, but even those include other adjuvants that are present specifically to inflame the host and help promote a stronger immune response. I'm not claiming that including those adjuvants is a problem as far as the vaccine goes, only that it doesn't fit the definition of introducing an isolated virus.
Have we found plenty of evidence that a specific virus is present in a host after symptoms are shown? Absolutely. But have we ever successfully checked the box on Koch's Postulates with a virus? Not that I know of.