The phrase "no evidence" is a red flag for bad science communication (2021)
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Having evidence for untrue things also turns up naturally because of statistical mirages.
"No evidence" is a phrase that gets used in untruthful ways. There usually is evidence, of everything. True, false or irrelevant - there will be evidence of it in some form or another. The question is what standard the evidence reaches, not whether it exists.
2. This gets back to the point Scott is making - now define "scientific evidence". For any reasonable definition of scientific evidence, there is a lot of evidence for almost everything. I can find scientific evidence for aliens if I want to - to a terribly low standard, true enough - although what Scott picked on was homeopathy which works a bit better.
People underestimate lies, damn lies and statistics. There are facts that back up any worldview, no matter how insane. Carl could find scientific evidence to back up his theory. There'll be anomalous weather station readings, weird sounds, academics papers published by crazy academics that kinda support him. We've all met monomaniacal people; they aren't shy of finding scientific evidence for their case. Still bunk though.
Slight tangent, but I've seen a similar thing when trying to decide which religion, if any, is true:
Every one I looked at had at least a few very intelligent, seemingly rational adherents. It seems like there's a subjective element to what evidence each person finds persuasive.
It's not like there is a "scientist" card that some people carry and some don't... and it's not like none of the hypothetical card-carrying scientists would ever have crazy opinions.
A publications doesn’t give you a free pass from scrutiny.
Sorry to seem pedantic, but I think it matters here since we're talking about specific meanings of terms.
Imagine Carl ran an experiment where he put a sign in front of various groups of turnips asking for things like aliens, Bigfoot, or faeries to take the turnips.
After running this experiment, only the turnips with signs associated to aliens were taken.
In this scenario, Carl would have some scientific evidence suggesting aliens took his turnips. It'd be weak evidence that likely wouldn't be replicated, but still evidence.
An analysis of compounds in DNA finds that there are, within a small margin of error, identical quantities of adenine and thymine, and identical quantities of guanine and cytosine. You have not yet been able to experimentally verify your hypothesis of a base pair rule. It is nevertheless not true to say there is "no evidence" of a base pair rule.
Sufficient evidence to form a reasonable hypothesis, but insufficient evidence to elevate your hypothesis to a theory, is still some evidence, and it is a lie to say otherwise.
Really? The scientific method is flawed.
The OP had a funny alien example, so someone stretched and came up with a silly 'test' for a hypothesis of the alien ate the turnip.
That doesn't mean 'testing' is flawed way of determining 'evidence'.
Then of course there are gradations below that. Observational studies, are just observations after all.
But because I can say "there is 'no evidence' that there are no aliens" is then the lowest bar, it doesn't mean there 'are' aliens.
But the point here is that 'no evidence' is being used as a rhetorical technique to promote actually false findings.
Kind of along the lines of simply injecting doubt into a debate in order to detract from real evidence. Like what has been done for cigarettes, sugar, etc...
(They probably didn't have turnips though, I hope that wasn't the point.)
The problem here isn't whether this is scientific evidence, but that the evidence isn't sufficient for scientists to form a reasonable hypothesis about what gives rise to the phenomenon (which could be (a) aliens are real, (b) some form of mass hallucination, (c) some form of synchronized fraudulent claim, (d) etc. etc. ).
I speculate that if somebody actually does a "literature review" of abduction reports they could pick out some signals to form some hypothesis, but presumably scientists have better things to risk their careers over.
Sometimes, people just saying something is extremely good evidence that it's true. My name is Stuart. I'm 22 years old.
This sounds like "Bayesian evidence". However, I don't think "scientific evidence" has a precise agreed-upon definition. I would take "there is scientific evidence" to mean "some scientists say they have significant evidence that they themselves obtained directly and that they have published or presented".
And here I have absolutely no idea if it is true or not. I don't know you, I can't see you. You could be a bot, a dog, a scammer, a teenager... Your evidence means nothing "evident".
Are you sure you're even awake right now? Are you sure that you've ever been awake? Are any of your senses evidently reliable?
Perceived reality can never be perfect evidence, and it's not possible to step outside of your own perceptions.
Evidence is just that. If you try really hard to achieve full epistemological rigour I think it's inevitable you'll wind up at the conclusion you don't know anything at all.
Expert opinion, direct experience by judge, documents, testimony by witnesses, testimony by the accused.
So testimony is one type of evidence here.
In civil procedure it‘s the dame, just the terms differ slightly.
[Edit: Interesting replies, thanks!]
It means observing the accused, the witnesses, objects introduced into trial and so on. In the sense of experiencing something with one's senses. It does not mean "let me apply my world view".
Visual inspection by the court, Sections 371-372a of the Code of Civil Procedure
This consists of any direct, sensory inspection by the judge for evidential purposes. Contrary to the somewhat misleading term used, ‘Augenschein’, ‘visual inspection’, it may also include sensory inspection by touching, smelling, listening and tasting. Consequently, sound and video recordings and data storage media are also included.
It's usually for common-sensical things that aren't controversial. Of course, judges could misapply this rule, but if a judge is sitting on a blasphemy trial you have more problems (with the legal system) than a dispute about whether "religion is real".
I suspect the rule is just to make things less "anal" for court procedings. Otherwise every small bit of fact needs to be proven. Things like "summer is hot", "Taylor Swift is a famous singer", "computers can be hacked", "smart phones can take photos", etc. etc. Surely you don't want to call expert witnesses for these, right?
And given that the judge ultimately calls the shots (since they're the ultimate interpreter of the law), you'd have a problem if a biased judge is appointed anyway, no matter what rules of evidence is adopted.
No it isn't, it's a term of art and it tells you something very important: the second half of the phrase is still only a hypothesis and no one has tried or been able to prove it in a rigorous way. And if you understand that, it gives you a lot of context for how to interpret it.
Does it get misused by non-scientists to mean other things? Sure. But you get lied to every day with far more sophistication, so I guess I don't understand the huff about this particular bit of jargon.
This was a weak article, basically. Leave the scientists their jargon, if you don't like how it's being used, argue about the specifics of the point.
Can you restate the meaning of the term of art "No evidence"?
Can you cite any source that explains this fact you are relaying in greater depth?
Does science have a different term to communicate the nonexistence of evidence?
"no evidence of a difference" is fine so long as it's proceeded with "This study found", which when studies are translated to press reports often gets dropped, especially in headlines.
On this particular issue, even the original studies often screw things up unfortunately. Frequentist statistics works very differently from people's natural intuition, and the attraction of a binary decision tool (NHST) has led to a lot of lazy thinking and sloppy science.
What happens if I say that aliens did not abduct Carl's prize turnip, and instead it spontaneously combusted? Is there then 'conflicting evidence'?
Seems to be that the 'evidence' in both these cases is so vanishingly small as to not be evidence
If, you were actually someone involved with the turnip theft, and in a legal sense had something like standing to challenge Carl's statement, then your mutual testimony would probably be considered.
> If Crazy Carl says that aliens abducted his prize turnip, ...
Then, this is a piece of information like many other pieces. The question is only how I should process this. Maybe it will only strengthen my belief that Carl is, in fact, crazy. But who knows maybe I should factor in some more information. Is Carly really that crazy as commonly believed or was Carl taking some strange pills yesterday?
Or in a COVID context: So if a scientist says "no evidence that asymptomatic people transmit the disease", it might change your beliefs about the disease or on the person talking about related topics in the future as you lost trust in that person.
At least in the COVID context, they were worried that any nuance would confuse the public, so they simply gave the simplified, dumbed down version.
Of course it backfired a bit. I honestly don't know what's the optimal play for them, but it seems a bit revisionist to say that they assumed the public was capable of filling in the gaps...
But when policymakers say there's no evidence for ivermectin's ability to treat COVID, I don't fault them because I see their choice of words as being aligned with the truth. Therefore they are accurately communicating science and good policy.
As with all uses of language, we have to look at it on a case-by-case basis whether it's being weaponized wrongly or used appropriately. I will criticize it when it's used wrongly, and otherwise not criticize it.
Evidence for untrue things is still evidence, if it is verifiable. However, there is such thing as "no evidence". Crazy Carl's claim by itself would not be verifiable, therefore it is not evidence.
The standard for that evidence should be very different than the standard for reproducible physics, chemistry and biology experiments.
Other times it's just an extrapolation of a preexisting data set. Running this query produced this result.
Don’t forget the likely bias that you are talking about scientific results in the press, which is a negligible subset of scientific work and which is biased towards humans, and sociological studies in particular.
From you comment I doubt you’re seeing much work in insect embryology or slippage in gravel pile formation (I don’t run across that stuff either)
> The standard for that evidence should be very different than the standard for reproducible physics, chemistry and biology experiments.
I don't really see why we should treat evidence coming from surveys differently than evidence coming from physics, chemistry or biology experiments as long as surveys are well constructed, fulfill the criterion of validity and reliability and are reproducible. Yes, they are not 'hard facts' but often the only option to measure latent variables or fuzzy constructs. If they do this in a reproducible way I don't see the issue here.
On the other hand, 'hard sciences' such as neuroscience and medical science have a big problem with non-reproducible studies, even though they use more 'objective' measurement methods.
You could presumably check if Carl suffers from regular hallucinations, maybe run him through an fMRI to check if he's lying (assuming they can make that reliable), and so on. Each check increases confidence in the claim, even though it will never by itself be persuasive.
The equivalent statement is "extraordinary evidence doesn't necessarily imply extraordinary claims".
Lets say that somehow humans had not mixed baking soda and vinegar together before today. You decide to mix these things and get a mild foamy eruption that is cool. You do it twice and the same thing happens.
In this 'ordinary' example I would say you need less evidence to make your claims because the means of reproduction of the experiment and testing are within the reach of almost everybody. This could be quickly validated across the globe, and the reproducibility is evidence.
Now, if you require a billion dollar machine and a year of time to reproduce the experiment, you need to provide a lot of damned evidence so you don't waste a lot of scientists time and money that could be used for better things. Same with any experiments on people and/or the environment that can have effects that cannot be recovered from.
We should have different standards of evidence for different scenarios. If Bob ate a suspicious species of carrot and ended up in the hospital, that's a reasonable indication to not eat that type of carrot, even though it's not a controlled experiment and technically anecdotal evidence. You don't need N=10 people to end up in the hospital to listen to a story.
See, the 'no evidence' is used as a rhetorical device to make something 'appear' true.
Falling back on the old 'all evidence is questionable' because our eyes can deceive, and all perception is subjective, so all of reality is in doubt, is a rabbit whole.
Sure we live in a 'numinal' world. That doesn't mean we can't use thermometers to tell the temperature, even thought temperature itself is a construct.
Of course, you can absorb information, observations, into your brain, and make judgments, like the road is wet, the light is red. It is fairly subjective, not recorded. Whether you report to the police that you swear the light was green. or Crazy uncle says aliens ate his turnips.
They are really almost about the same level of verifiability. Then it is just probabilities that make us really dismiss the alien hypothesis.
That is a lot different from forming a hypothesis, performing a controlled experience and taking measurements to prove/disprove hypothesis.
When troubleshooting, I will take in all observations, no matter how strange. But I wouldn't say they are the problem without further verification.
I think there is evidence: https://news.ycombinator.com/threads?id=ironmagma
Trolls would reasonably able to be detected by the contents of their posts/comments. Looking over the comment history, I see an absence of evidence that they are a troll and, in this case, absence of evidence is evidence of absence [because we can reasonably exhaust all of the "trials" [past comments]].
I've seen plenty of people watch the exact same debate, and each believes 100% that their side wont hands down. Of course "there is no evidence" one side won or not.
The point is that "there is no evidence" is being used to promote the opposite views.
So I can disparage ironmagma in a title of an article, and all the reader who flips through them is left with impression that "ironmagma must be a troll, lot's of good people think so, and there is no evidence he isn't".
I probably should have come up with better example. But there is "no evidence" that the outcome would be different.
That's also why we avoided eating non-poisonous tomatoes for centuries leaving food proverbably on the table. The world experienced far more rapid progression when we started demanding reproducible evidence for reproducible events.
"true evidence" should probably be replaced with "scientific evidence". If you have 10 witness on the stand, all who say they saw Bob shoot Alice then that is evidence that Bob shot Alice, even if we can't actually reproduce the shooting.
Scientific evidence ought to meet the standard. If someone produces a video showing Bob shot Alice (let's assume faking the video is technically impossible), that would also constitute "true evidence". In that sense, I wouldn't consider witness' testimonies "true evidence".
It's a fact that legal evidence in court does not need to be "verifiable". There are rules for what counts as admissible evidence of course (complex rules at that), but AFAIK none of those requirements is "verifiable".
As I suggested in another comment, there's a big difference on how to evaluate scientific claims (which is required to be reproducible) and some random factual claim (eg. what did I have for breakfast). There is no way I can give "true, verfiable evidence" for what I ate for breakfast, but generally people take my word for it, and my word is "good enough" evidence.
There are other types of claims where, because the evidence is inherently hard to obtain, even "low quality" evidence is taken into account, eg. digging up a clay pot could be evidence of civilization or human settlement in an area. (Surely no one in their right mind would say to support such a claim you need to somehow independently verify it, right?)
This depends how far you are in the process of turning your breakfast into poop.
As for the digging up of the pots... it depends on the exact nature of the claim.
Digging up of the clay pot does mean there where humans with clay pots at that place some time in the past. The settlement claim is a larger claim, if they were travelers that lost their pots there, that's a lot different than the pots being buried in a basement of a permanent building. Finding lots of the same kind of pots over a wide area and scale of time show that a certain civilization (may?) have existed in that area.
Scientific evidence needs to be repeatable.
If others perform the same experiment, they should get the same experimental result.
Once you start exploring the views of individuals and groups, you're more in the realm of the social sciences than hard science.
This isn't even true. Suppose a supernova happens and you gather a bunch of data. That's not really repeatable.
Same goes for lots of things in evobio. Clinical reports of one-off events, etc.
If you gather a bunch of data on that supernova, you have evidence that supernova exploded. You don't have data on the nature of supernovas until you capture a wide range of them.
But so if you see something particularly unusual about that supernova (which happens a lot), it might be non reproducible, and you just have to live with that fact.
For example, multimodal observation of gravitational waves is still n=1
When 'intelligence' is involved it can be a little more tricky as we tend to pull some tricks that seemingly violate entropy at least on a local scale (that is systems at the local scale can become more ordered), which means it can take a lot of effort to the thermodynamic path a system took to get into its current configuration.
> Scientific evidence needs to be repeatable.
I think the GP comment had it right.
Consider I make some cosmological prediction based on Bob’ observational data (“stars with this spectrum mostly contain elements X and Y”). It does little good to repeat my analysis, which is entirely done on a piece of paper or in a computer program.
But Alice could say, “Well if that’s true, then this other thing would have to be true too” and go check that.
That’s the difference between “verifiable” and “repeatable”.
Sometimes “repeatable” is a sensible form of verification. Last year we spent 9 months trying to reproduce results from an important (to us) paper. Eventually we came up with a reliable process to reproduce the results of the paper — the hypothesis was correct — but it looks like the author just saw some signal a few times, and didn’t really demonstrate the principle they were trying to validate. We couldn’t use the same process described in the paper.
Since we can now get the result whenever we want we consider the theory valid.
1. the facts, signs or objects that make you believe that something is true 2. the information that is used in court to try to prove something
I was talking about sense 1, you were talking about sense 2.
I think the article is also about sense 1 of the word "evidence".
[1]: https://www.oxfordlearnersdictionaries.com/definition/englis...
What is worse, the media manipulators know that distinction. They do not actually confuse it - they know "without ultimate proof" and "without evidence" are different things. They never use it interchangeably, as it would happen if they, like you, were confusing the two. Instead, they use "no evidence" when they should have said "no ultimate proof" or "evidence, insufficient to make a definite conclusion" - to confuse you and present the matter as if there's actually only one possible conclusion, and you shouldn't even try to inquire about what it's based on, since there's literally nothing - "no evidence" - that you could look at. This is usually false, because if there was truly nothing, there would be little point of them trying to convince you. What they are trying to do is to prevent you from considering the evidence there exists, by falsely claiming "there's no evidence" and thus you should accept the conclusion pre-made for you. It doesn't mean if you consider the evidence you'd necessarily arrive at the opposite conclusion - but they are not willing to take the risk, they do not trust you. You can take that as another piece of evidence for how strong their argument actually is.
I am not sure about that. If someone claims that you had stole something from a store, which you know you didn't, responding with something like "where is your evidence/you have no evidence" sounds perfectly reasonable to me.
> Is there "no evidence" for alien abductions? There are hundreds of people who say they've been abducted by aliens! By legal standards, hundreds of eyewitnesses is great evidence! If a hundred people say that Bob stabbed them, Bob is a serial stabber - or, even if you thought all hundred witnesses were lying, you certainly wouldn't say the prosecution had “no evidence”! When we say "no evidence" here, we mean "no really strong evidence from scientists, worthy of a peer-reviewed journal article". But this is the opposite problem as with the parachutes - here we should stop accepting informal evidence, and demand more scientific rigor.
For something purported to be factual and experienced personally (eg. did the accused assault the victim? did person experience alien abduction?), there's arguably no better way to handle these kinds of evidence except through witnesses and their testimony (and maybe cross examination).
Note that whether a single person experienced alien abduction is not a scientific question per se, it is simply a question of a person's subjective experience or memory. There's no hypothesis for this specific factual question, and no laws of nature are involved (yet).
On the other hand, questions such as "what is the gravitational constant", or "why do people report alien abductions?" is a scientific question. For the latter, scientists could hypothesize that (a) aliens are real (b) there's some kind of mass hallucination going on (c) some other weird phenomenon, etc. I think it's actually arguable that we don't have enough evidence to provide a convincing hypothesis about the general phenomenon (of abduction reports), but people confuse this lack of scientific hypothesis with the phenomenon not being real.
If you actually think about it, there's no reason any scientist could authoritatively say whether a particular person actually experienced alien abduction or not, just like no scientist could say whether a particular person had been assaulted or not. We might not have theories to explain the phenomenon, but that doesn't mean the reports are not true.
I've encountered a similar issue in arguments for / against various religious claims.
Even when people are arguing in good faith, there's sometimes a disagreement about what evidence is considered valid.
For example, I have personal "spiritual" revelations that I acknowledge nobody in their right mind would believe unless they witnessed/experienced something similar themselves. (And I make this claim in good faith.)
And this is actually fine. People hold different views because they have different experiences. And while communication can narrow the gap, it doesn't eliminate it completely.
I think it's an actually interesting thought experiment to suspend your disbelief about whatever you currently believe about alien abductions, and imagine that you actually experienced it yourself. What could you have said to convince people it actually happened? Is there a way to not become Crazy Carl besides pretending it didn't happen?
You're correct, evidence exists on a spectrum from "highly implausible" to "highly plausible".
> People like to believe that "someone says" isn't evidence, which is wildly disconnected from how human society works.
Human society is multi-faceted.
In the sciences, "someone says" is the lowest form of evidence there is. It is so close to "no evidence" that we simply disregard it without further thought.
In the legal system, "someone says" is the highest form of evidence there is - witness testimony can, and routinely does, trump any other evidence.
These are the two extremes. Other human societal systems use the word "evidence" to mean anything in between these two extremes.
You are conflating the science's usage of the word "evidence" with the legal usage of the word "evidence".
It's important, because all of our evidence flows through subjective interpretation and a human reporting mechanism. Even if a computer mainlines some numbers to a data store, there's a subjective force: why did the experimenter choose to focus on those measurements?
I'm not contending the point (I'm in slight agreement with you, I believe). I'm only trying to point out that people are often talking past each other, because each person in that two-way conversation are often using different meanings of the word "evidence".
There is too much nuance to call either end of the spectrum "wrong for the meaning of 'evidence'".
Not really. "Someone says they conducted an experiment in a certain way and the data they gathered was as follows:" is still a form of "someone says You're trusting that they aren't lying about their data (and they often are).
hmmm. So citations in scientific papers are really disses? Interesting!
Actually, it really depends on: - who says it - is the statement within their field of expertise - do they have known or likely personal incentives - does the topic carry significant political, religious or ideological implications - is the topic politicized - is the field itself heavily ideological or activism oriented, hard science or somewhere in the middle - is the statement consistent with statements from most other trusted experts
In the U.S., at least, this is not true. Middle school and high school physics curricula include experiments to measure gravitational acceleration, so in theory (to the extent curricula are followed and students are present), almost everyone has measured it at least once.
And pushing that "alleged facts" boil down to "someone says" is ignoring some methods of science. Some people have recorded what the value of gravity on earth is. They have also recorded an analytic equation to calculate it, with the argument that it would work in other locations. They have then worked examples validating the equation in other locations. They have also given directions for how you can, personally, validate the value where you are. This is all very different than "someone says."
If you were in 15th century, you would believe everything Church says which is the authority figure at that time.
If you are in North Korea you would believe everything the Party says.
So an authority figure saying something is not really evidence isn't since the meaning of the word should stand the test of time and location.
For thousands of years society “worked” propagating religious babble then it didn’t. It’s low quality evidence society works on rhetoric.
If we say the trucks are on their way with food and they don’t show, the words meant nothing and the literal reality will dictate next steps.
Society doesn’t “work” on propagation of symbolic logic. It works when material outcomes are stable and equitable for the aggregate.
When society relies on functionally illiterate ossified minds propagating nostalgia babble, whether the babble is religious or statistical mirage that ignores the material stability of the aggregate (socializing a communal upside to a small cohort of mega rich rent seekers helicoptering us) societies fall apart.
Humans have real needs and when they’re met, society works. When they’re not due to over reliance on belief and philosophy society fails.
There’s plenty of high quality evidence to refute society works due to propagation of rhetorical statements. Real things need to occur too. Pre-language nomadic tribes built shared material stores, all based on the obvious physical reality. There is zero evidence society works on rhetoric at all and plenty the rhetoric propagates nothing but mirage.
Even as someone who has made a similar point recently, I think this is going too far. Carl claiming aliens is evidence of something weird going on with Carl, but there's still no reason to take his claim at face value. More likely Carl has a screw loose (good to know!) or is pulling a con.
I think that was a mistake because of the erosion of trust, but to be totally honest, I'm not sure where I stand on this overall.
Sometimes “no evidence” means that we haven't found compelling evidence yet. Some people are desperate and want all the studies to be done immediately and evaluate the risk if the theory is real or not.
But for scientists the desire to reach certain outcome is actually counterproductive as it can introduce bias. Slower and less passionate process can lead to better results.
For example:
1) We had no evidence of covid being airborne and then we found this evidence.
2) We had no evidence that masks help and then we found no evidence.
Two different theories, two different outcomes. Covid is airborne and it changes our understanding (however, we gradually realized that it is impossible to limit the spread and all the measures ultimately were useless). And that masks most likely had very little effect.
The reporters could write better for lay public explaining that “no evidence” means that currently we don't have evidence but it could be found later or that “no evidence” is actually that we have a lot of evidence that is indicating in some other direction and the chance of new evidence that rejects those findings is smaller but still could happen.
Also, I think the whole question here is, who decides what qualifies as "compelling" evidence?
Qualified experts. Any other answer eventually turns into political gibbering and social media nonsense.
Here’s an example of what that looked like in June 2021, covering developments in May, just 5 months after the first country in the world had approved the vaccine (UK, 2020-12):
https://www.yalemedicine.org/news/myocarditis-coronavirus-va...
Similarly Israel’s public health agency’s report was covered in June 2021:
https://www.reuters.com/world/middle-east/israel-sees-probab...
> The European Medicines Agency (EMA) said last week that heart inflammation after receiving the Pfizer vaccine had been no cause for concern as such incidents were similar rate to those in the general population.
The CDC and other agencies also continue to heavily downplay the risk as 'mild myocarditis.'
So what are you actually upset about?
But ignorance is a thing, even for authorities.
There's a difference between a person/institution having no evidence of X, and no evidence of X in general. So, "who" doesn't have evidence, and how much effort they took to attempt to find evidence before they declared it non-existent, is a relevant question when "no evidence" claims are proposed.
It's funny, because when a person or institution comes out and says "there is no evidence" of whatever (without a context), it would be discredited if any obscure person in the world has such evidence, even if not widely published. It would, IMHO, be much better to say that "we have looked into <all the reasonable sources and literature> and found no evidence" instead.
Actually we did from the decades surgeons wore masks to prevent the spread of airborne diseases. Once we knew Covid was one of them, then even if the protection was one way, it would have reduced infections if everyone wore one.
I suspect the prolonged mass confusion over such an elementary topic will be one for the Science Communicator books.
Arguing with people who just spout "masks don't work" and then intentionally are non-compliant (and encourage others to) is like arguing with motivated idiots.
No, masks work, period. Masking only works if people freaking do it.
edit: spelling
Studies have shown they work (such as https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/33483277/), despite the 'ah, yes but only [insert unsupported caveat here]' of some.
...on a mannequin, in a lab, or when used as a filter between two hamster cages. Perhaps. But there have now been plenty of negative studies in hospitals, which really starts to beg the question: if you can't get effective compliance in a hospital, where are you going to get it?
Just to be clear, I was with you right up until the part I quoted. It's fine to say that mechanistic studies show something to be true, but it's totally wrong to leap to the conclusion that these mean anything. If I tell you that you're 100% certain to lose weight if you stop eating, that's True ("Starving works. Period."), but it's not meaningful.
Every failed drug ever tested worked in a laboratory before it went to clinical trials.
https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/33431650/ - "We recommend that public officials and governments strongly encourage the use of widespread face masks in public, including the use of appropriate regulation." https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/33370173/ - "Evidence suggests that the potential benefits of wearing masks likely outweigh the potential harms when SARS-CoV-2 is spreading in a community". Mentions the network effect. https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/32497510/ - "Face mask use could result in a large reduction in risk of infection" https://www.mayoclinic.org/diseases-conditions/coronavirus/i...
"...on a mannequin, in a lab, or when used as a filter between two hamster cages. Perhaps." No, you are coping hard. The studies above are not done by idiots.
"if you can't get effective compliance in a hospital, where are you going to get it?" Nice pivot, but the subject is whether they work, which they do. Compliance is a different question. That's like arguing that condom effectiveness is low when people don't use them properly. And because the figure is low, let's just conclude condoms are ineffective so people should stop using them altogether.
"Every failed drug ever tested worked in a laboratory before it went to clinical trials." And some actually worked in trials. Your job is to explain which is the better analogy. That unanticipated practical considerations exist does not invalidate every conclusion you dislike.
However, even if masks work slightly, or not at all, even if there are dozens of studies saying so, there is enough conjecture to warrant wearing them anyway just in case. If two equally qualified mechanics disagree on whether to change your brakes, you change your damn brakes. If you don't that's stupid. If you don't and then drive a busload of people, that's criminal.
But masks do work, and they're cheap and barely an inconvenience. The problem is everyone thinks they're smarter than an epidemiologist. Thanks Internet.
The second link is not a study, or a meta-review, and contributes nothing. The fourth link is not a scientific paper at all.
The third link is the WHO summary of masking data in mid-2020. It covers the same ground as the Cochrane review (below), but re-weights the data somewhat arbitrarily to achieve the stated conclusions.
The Cochrane review is the gold standard summary of the evidence for public masking, considers all published data, and includes/excludes/weights data based on a rigorous standard for statistical and experimental quality. Please read it.
https://www.cochranelibrary.com/cdsr/doi/10.1002/14651858.CD...
- Aggregating the three studies together, he said, “they show a consistent and fairly convincing effect.”
- “Taken together, these two RCTs are consistent with a small reduction in risk,”
- "“To me, this shows that there is a reasonably clear modest benefit to community masking interventions during the COVID-19 pandemic, decreasing the rate of infections in groups of people who are given masks and told to wear them by ~13%," he said. “That’s quite an important benefit in the context of a pandemic.”
I'm not sure why you think your opinion on what constitutes a high quality source is somehow superior to that of the thousands of experts who have concluded otherwise. Unless you are also an epidemiologist and a scholar I'm not convinced your cherry picking is worth more than anyone else's. I'm okay with leaving things up to them. But even if you are, you're in the minority.
Point is: 1) a modest increase protection is amplified by a network effect. There is evidence pointing to that increase.
2) people's lives depend on this, so if there's any uncertainty, do the reasonable, socially responsible thing and put up with the minor inconvenience of a mask, just out of caution
3) I don't need to understand every source as I don't pretend to be an expert. We already have those (that presumably aren't all part of big-mask) and they can and should be trusted to fairly weigh up the available evidence and advise us.
Your motivation to conclude one way just seems irrational, suggesting you aren't an expert either.
If they wore masks to prevent airborne diseases, they would wear them when meeting patients, not just during the operation.
When you cut through someones skin, you bypass one of the major first lines of defense. Therefor surgeons reduce the risks, for a similar reason why clean their tools before use.
Funny you should say that. There were randomized controlled trials on exactly this question prior to 2020. Guess what the outcomes were?
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4480558/
(Notably, this review is from 2015...it is not subject to the ridiculous politics of Covid.)
> However, overall there is a lack of substantial evidence to support claims that facemasks protect either patient or surgeon from infectious contamination. More rigorous contemporary research is needed to make a definitive comment on the effectiveness of surgical facemasks.
Also, rather (in)famously, a review saying the same thing was censored from the web in spring 2020, because...reasons.
While I'd personally love to see extensive, rigorous investigation of this question, simply repeating "masks work", or "people didn't do it correctly" (your current argument) when all of the current high-quality evidence suggests otherwise doesn't inspire confidence in those of us who actually use the scientific method.
But if we needed to guard for them and the good evidence is lacking, then not testing would be unethical.
Yes, even covid vaccine today could be compared with placebo, for example, in children. Europe never mandated covid vaccine for children and today in the UK they cannot even get the vaccine unless in a risk group. The US however recommends covid vaccine for children without the evidence that it makes any difference today. It definitely should be tested in trials before such recommendations.
I don't think that IRB would reject such studies. At the start of pandemic everybody was saying that doing human challenge trials by infecting healthy volunteers would be unethical. And yet the UK did them. The red tape takes time and I can understand that during pandemics we may need to act quickly and cannot test everything. But in principle we can and do need to all kinds of trials to obtain proper evidence.
The vaccine question was about vaccines in general, much as RFK Jr is talking about doing. Again, with the weight of long experience on how well they prevent diseases in mind, it would be unethical to expose a kid to that by giving them a placebo shot. Measles is pretty benign but not totally so. See a case of SSPE in your career and you'll never forget it.
If the claim masks don't work didn't come from the same people who said isolating didn't work, I might take them seriously. I might not just see it as motivated reasoning or another lame effort to discredit or cast suspicion on authorities.
If it didn't come from the same conspiracists who see nefarious censorship everywhere or people who only see their personal rights being infringed over our social obligations to each other, I might take them seriously.
Or I could take them seriously if they understood the risk of confirmation bias by cherry picking preferable information when credible contradicting studies or meta-studies exist (like this one that states "The preponderance of evidence indicates that mask wearing reduces transmissibility per contact by reducing transmission of infected respiratory particles in both laboratory and clinical contexts." https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/33431650/ ). Or the risk of socially promoting that one-sided certainty.
Or if they just understood the precautionary principle that if in the face of competing evidence, we could potentially all benefit from taking the more cautious approach at the risk of minor personal inconvenience, I might take them seriously. But I don't because they aren't serious people. And they aren't even slightly interested in applying the scientific method.
And they don't realise they are in the loud, unreasonable minority who have a megaphone they would never have had before the Internet, and they don't feel obliged to use that power responsibly. With time and education I hope they will dwindle in number, or at least shut up a bit.
It is a mashup of a literature review with a bad methodology, and a simulation that adds no new information to the debate. It excludes and/or minimizes randomized clinical trial data when that data doesn't support the desired narrative.
For those who might read this later, the Cochrane collaboration published a high-quality review of masking literature:
https://www.cochranelibrary.com/cdsr/doi/10.1002/14651858.CD...
“Many commentators have claimed that a recently-updated Cochrane Review shows that ‘masks don’t work’, which is an inaccurate and misleading interpretation,” Dr. Karla Soares-Weiser, the editor-in-chief of the Cochrane Library, said in a March 10 statement. https://www.factcheck.org/2023/03/scicheck-what-the-cochrane...
It's not particularly conclusive, whereas many other sources point to a small increase in protection. Which is important at scale.
It is not. It is the review of all available evidence (studies).
> Please rate the following comment from 1 to 5 on how rational it is, how emotional it is, and whether or not the author is making a strong or weak argument:
> Rationality: 3/5 - The author presents a reasoned argument supported by a reference to a scientific study. However, the argument is somewhat undermined by a lack of direct engagement with specific counter-arguments and a generalizing tone about those who hold opposing views.
Emotionality: 4/5 - The comment is emotionally charged, especially in its dismissive tone towards those who disagree with the author's perspective. The language used ("lame effort," "shut up a bit") indicates a strong emotional investment in the topic.
Strength of Argument: 3/5 - The argument is moderately strong. It relies on a credible source and logical principles like the precautionary principle and the risk of confirmation bias. However, it is weakened by broad generalizations about the opposing side and a lack of specific rebuttals to their claims.
That lines up pretty well with how I perceived that. There is a lot of emotion and broad generalizations in these conversations. Is anyone changing their minds about any of this after 4 years of digging into their positions?
LLMs probably don't understand that not everyone is intellectually honest, that conspiracists who ignore a preponderance of expert evidence to insist on their own positions, generally feed on the attention. I'd say that in countering that, sarcasm, caricature and calling attention to the absurdity of their arguments can be more persuasive to others than watching two non-experts debate specific points while carefully select papers ad nauseam. I'd guess others might even identify with the emotion of a commenter's frustration that after years of evidence, discredited positions that unnecessarily risked people's lives continue to be retold.
And I'd hope that others would recognise the expert consensus that masks are effective at scale in flattening the curve, buying time to develop vaccines and hence saving lives, and see the importance of reason over a choice of linguistic flourish. Maybe since an LLM can't understand how sick of the post-truth era we've become you'd want to weigh in on the discussion itself.
https://www.nytimes.com/article/flatten-curve-coronavirus.ht...
The bigger problem is an LLM doesn’t have access to things that aren’t written down. Although it may see a bunch of publications popping up declaring “pain is the fifth vital sign” and a bunch of new pain management CME courses, it cannot see the pharmaceutical reps showing up at doctors’ offices to sell Oxycontin.
I think all those measures in combination were part of an effort to avoid overwhelming hospitals. From https://www.factcheck.org/2023/03/scicheck-what-the-cochrane...
“Community masking is not aimed to prevent everyone from ever getting infected, the aim is to reduce transmission and ‘flatten the curve’, reducing peak healthcare demand, or to work in combination with other measures like social distancing to contain transmission in the short-term.”
It didn't. The claim came from Cochrane group.
So, are you taking it seriously now?
Individually masks reduce infections. En masse, even more so.
I remember asking my dad (who was a doctor who performed surgeries - mostly c-sections and appendectomies - often) about masks, and his answer in the early 80s was interesting:
“It’s mostly to prevent me from getting spit into open wounds and incisions when I'm talking or I have to sneeze or cough. Bacteria is a real problem, and the mask stops that.”
I never really thought much of that until recently.
Meanwhile, I'll be in TB clinic shortly with an N95 mask on. I've yet to convert my TB test in 17 years.
We absolutely rely on surgical masks not to contaminate the field. But they don't have one way valves, so if we trust the airflow one way, it's logical to trust them for airflow going the other.
> so if we trust the airflow one way
Pedantic, but it matters: that's not airflow, that's droplets and spit.
I have no evidence that my neighbor has a water softener - but that evidence does exist and I could obtain it in several ways (ask him; break into his house). Maybe he doesn't have one, maybe he does - but either way the evidence exists if I cared to look for it.
The point of the article is because this can cut both ways it is impossible to distinguish between the shades of meaning, and the phrase should be discarded entirely.
FFP3 are the standard for protecting against airborne disease and they work as intended. That’s literally one of the purposes they’re designed for. FF2/N95 also work quite well, which was known for a long time, including from SARS and MERS studies.
Work can mean that they prevent transmission or reduce the risk. It might have been worth wearing a surgical mask, as I remember reading that it did reduce risk enough for it to be recommended in Germany once the establishment got over their mask procurement predicament.
Finally, original Covid was not as contagious as current Covid, which is one of the if not the most contagious airborne disease.
Based on e.g. SARS it would have been rational to recommend FFP2 masks, as was done in e.g. South Korea. However, incompetent Westen governments utterly failed to make such masks available to the population, so they tended to err on the “no evidence masks work” side.
I'd say a better expression would be "we don't know yet whether ...", e.g.: "we don't know yet whether Covid is airborne".
Most of the time when no evidence is used, it's to drive political or business activity. For example:
“There is no evidence that Asbestos is unsafe.”
I wish that news media would just be honest, or tell us when research is ongoing so people people were not panicking over something that is simply just not known.
“Researchers have good reason to believe that masks will help prevent the spread of COVID-19, but research is ongoing at _______ to determine if COVID-19 is airborne, and how effective masks are in preventing the spread of COVID-19.”
Unfortunately, the truth is boring and outrage and panic drive clicks.
So, in short, Cochrane review shows that we don't have a good quality evidence that masks were effective. And the low quality evidence indicates that masks either had no or very little effect. Some people try to quote one or two studies out of context but that's not helpful because we need to take the totality of evidence into account.
It is possible that once we obtain high quality evidence, these conclusions will be overturned. Surprisingly there is very little interest in doing such studies.
Lots of people died.
For a layperson, they feel like they are having the wool pulled over their eyes and are not given a truthful answer. For example:
Interviewer: Can you say for certain that X causes Y?
Scientist: We have no evidence that X causes Y.
Interviewer: But can you say for certain that Y is NOT caused by X?
Scientist: There is no evidence of that relationship.
The scientist is trying to choose their words carefully because they are operating on the principle of only communicating what the data is telling us. The interviewer wants a clear, definitive answer. Both parties become frustrated.I do agree with the article that this is poor communication because the scientist sounds like a lawyer and is hiding something rather than stating the facts of the situation. I’m sure there are better ways to communicate this that communicate either “we don’t know yet” and “we do not believe there is a link” instead this line.
Side note: another related and interesting distinction is the difference between unproven and disproven. If you saw a headline that a major hypothesis was “unproven”, it means only that there is no data to support it. Disproven is what the layman often thinks this means which is actively finding evidence to the contrary.
When I worked at Apple retail, we were trained that if we were asked a question that we didn’t know the answer to was to say, “I don’t know, let’s find out together” and you either did some research on Apple’s site or asked someone who may know with the customer.
Because nobody wants to say that they don’t know the answer…yet (and that’s key) they take the current working theory and say there’s no evidence to the contrary.
Question: If science communicators use the colloquial meaning instead of the technical one, are they bad science communicators? Or especially good ones?
I think it's the latter. I also think if you're smart enough to know the technical definition, you should be smart enough to make this translation without making a stink about it. And given that half of the given examples are about COVID, there's some chance that the author has an axe to grind.
You point out a colloquial meaning of the phrase "no evidence", but look closer at his examples -- these are routinely used in both colloquial and technical ways, and in the end muddy the waters more than necessary. In his words, from the article:
> You can see the problem. Science communicators are using the same term - “no evidence” - to mean:
> 1. This thing is super plausible, and honestly very likely true, but we haven’t checked yet, so we can’t be sure.
> 2. We have hard-and-fast evidence that this is false, stop repeating this easily debunked lie.
> This is utterly corrosive to anybody trusting science journalism.
> If the story is that nobody has ever investigated snake oil, and you have no strong opinion on it, and for some reason that’s newsworthy, use the words “either way”: “No Evidence Either Way About Whether Snake Oil Works”.
You spent how long telling me that "no evidence" is bad writing, and your solution is "no evidence" + weasel words? That's even worse. Just recognize that the thing you have no opinion on is not newsworthy, and just drop it. That's right, less writing is good journalism.
The greater problem here is the fear of authority. If there is a position to present, then present it directly. If the position is that snake oil doesn't work, then just say it. If you aren't a good enough authority, then find someone who is.
This is where scientific communication has ultimately failed. The strongest authorities we have all use the weakest language that they can! By refusing to represent a strong position, we have left a void. That void will inevitably be filled by the least scrupulous authors. Whatever fills the void will be implicitly held in awe by the lack of direct criticism we had constructed around the void in the first place.
Refusing to participate creates an inverse cult. An anti-cult where everyone agrees to never share what they believe. It spreads its anti-message just as quickly, and cements itself just as divisively, as any evangelist organization does. We must recognize that the anti-cult lives on equal footing with the cult. The true power of each exists, not in their core truth claim, but at the boundary of argument. Argument is engagement, and engagement is fuel. To avoid engagement is to starve.
There are some topics that are still being researched, and if people say anything other than ‘There’s not enough evidence either way and so until we know more sit tight.’ or something to that effect, they’re simply being misleading.
At the same time, these topics are being sensationalised by various people and so something should be said about them. You can use stronger words to discuss the sensationalisation itself, but when discussing the topic and the evidence itself rational, even handed language should be used as that is the language of science.
Unfortunately using (misleading) stronger language to stand out more against unscrupulous actors merely ruins your integrity and message. It’s better to be a source of good information for the people looking for it than to add to the pile of untrustworthy noise
OK, but then the argument is conclusive vs. inconclusive. Obviously that's something you can present a clear position on. This position does not exist in a vacuum: you brought up the lack of consensus in response to a vain assumption of consensus. The most important part of your entire sentence was, "sit tight".
What is often done instead is to present broad inconfidence. Anyone who assumes any consensus anywhere has broken the cardinal rule. They have made the obvious mistake, and will suffer the consequences. Here's the problem with that tactic: we all suffer the consequences.
Weasel words don't resolve the contentiousness of scientific communication. They dodge it.
Feigning confidence of certainty in the absence of clear evidence is not scientific.
This isn’t a problem about consensus, it’s a problem about evidence. I agree that scientific communicators and scientists should think for themselves and read widely and draw their own conclusions, but sometimes the evidence isn’t there to support a belief either way. Is that really dodging something?
I think "no evidence" is problematic and I think Bayesian reasoning is fundamental to science reporting. Maybe it doesn't even go far enough though, sometimes you need domain expertise.
Consider:
● Pesticide A was evaluated by the FDA and was declared safe in USA.
● Pesticide A was evaluated and banned in Europe.
● Pesticide A's molecule is similar to pesticide B, which is declared unsafe in USA.
● Of the last 10,000 pesticides to be declared safe by the USA, it actually turns out that Y% of them end up later being declared unsafe or only safer at a lesser dose.
● Pesticide A has only been evaluated by giving a 10,000x dose and looking for effects within a 1-week period. It has never been evaluated by giving a natural dose and looking for long term effects, nor effects on pregnant mothers.
● State that uses Pesticide A (but also many other products) has a 10x elevation of very rare cancers
This is a very realistic picture of the type of datapoints you might start with.
---
Or consider a case like this:
● Fighter pilot says he saw an alien spacecraft accelerate 100x the speed of a rocket with no noise, or visible propellant
● 50 other people say they saw strange things in incidents too
● There's good reason to think that faster-than-light-travel violates causality
● Scientists haven't found any radiowaves that indicate intelligent life anywhere they have looked
I think the point is: I don't see how you get good answers without a bunch of really good bayesianists in the FDA or in Science
If the priors don't affect the results too much (due to a huge amount of evidence), then you can just get the same results using frequentist methods.
Combine these two good forces and you end up with "Let's do some more research" which is what we need more of. "Is autism actually going up in the US? We don't actually know, and instead of bayesian hedging, let's construct some studies that definitively answer that."
I totally agree that for important issues more research is always needed when one needs to resort to Bayesian analysis, but sometimes for policy reasons somebody needs to make a decision quick and they can't wait 2 more years for indisputable evidence. COVID is a good example, governments can't just say let's wait for two years and see what happens... Even for the autism example, even if authorities only find a substantial but not definite likelihood that autism is going up, they are supposed to prepare for policies that might help alleviate the problem, instead of waiting it to become a definite problem and then fixing it after the fact. For example, let's say chemical X is deemed to have 80% chance of causing increased autism, it's hard to argue we should wait until it's 99% before restricting the use of X. Of course if it turns out upon more research the likelihood is closer to 0% the policy can be reversed.
How is that different than anyone else, for example yahoos arguing on the internet? The idea behind "evidence based" is a recognition that public policy has almost always been opinion-driven, and that we should cite evidence in support of our policies before adopting them.
Does that mean the evidence is correct? No. (Though even cherry-picked evidence is better than no evidence!). Does it mean you agree with the policy? Certainly not in all cases.
But the idea is sound. I think what you're upset about is not the "evidence based", it's that there's a partisan lean to the use of the term and that your tribe, whichever it is, is still doing the opinion thing and doesn't like citing studies.
https://leginfo.legislature.ca.gov/faces/billCompareClient.x...
(Disclaimer I'm not a scientist) Apparently in scientific circles, people can shoot down new claims by saying it doesn't have enough evidence, while the "default/fallback position" (held by the "establishment") is backed by even less evidence.
I'm not saying it's a common thing, but if you're looking for "evidence based" red flags, this might also be something to look out for too.
Please provide an example.
Science is a process, not an authority. We should not "trust the science". We should analyse and question it for ourselves.
I think the essential problem with the style of journalism from the article is that it reduces the substance of stories into an appeal-to-authority. It is not a trustworthy authority - there is plenty of history for people employed as scientists to make assertions that now look ridiculous.
Journalists should put more focus to the arguments and less to the conclusions.
>We should not "trust the science"
Unfortunately, those are accurate descriptions of many people's relationship with science, including many academics and scientists themselves.
Whether by malice or subconscious self-deception, the most used and useful part of scientific studies is the conclusion, without regard for the reproducibility and efficacy of the experiments or observations. The veracity of these conclusions is weighted by two things:
1. The existence of data-gathering and experimenting rituals, but not necessarily the soundness of the data or experiments
2. How aligned the conclusion is with the expectations and beliefs of the scientists, their funders, and their target prospects
A lot of the time the effect size is low (and will probably disappear with better controls) so leaving this out and leaning on the term "significant" is good for clickbait.
I get similarly annoyed by the use of the term "significant" in statistics, which is a technical term in the field, not an expression of the importance or magnitude of the finding.
It's very easy to satisfy the human mind. It's very easy to stay satisfied. The human mind wants to be satisfied, it does not want the truth. Consult any list of fallacies to see the difference between facts and satisfaction. The true nature of the universe is very complex and hard to understand.
Thus we have science. Science, as a practiced art, is a way to delay satisfaction of the mind. My mind will not be satisfied about question X until certain questions are answered.
(Bear with me) It can be very clearly observed that the Sun goes around the Earth. Every day I can observe this. I am satisfied. It is ONLY when other questions come up, that I must become unsatisfied and make more observations, and come up with a new theory.
I may observe the phases of the moon, and see that the Sun shines on the lunar surface from a certain angle. This observation is not consistent with the Sun orbiting the Earth, as I know that the Moon is closer to Earth than the Sun; thus the daily Lunar cycle should match Earth's cycle. My observations are not consistent. (There's also a lot of other evidence, but I like this one).
In fact, it is just an illusion caused by the Earth spinning round.
====
Science communicators need to talk about tests a lot more - what mental model is an expert using, and how do they test that model? How is evidence incorporated into that model to update it?
We have a lot of similar shorthands in journalism, the one that comes to my mind immediately is the phrase "the markets reacted", even though there is no living, conscious thing which is "the market" and can have a reaction. Similar to "no evidence", this phrase has a meaning which varies in detail but which is superficially the same and it's up to the reader to understand it.
If some random person in 1970 jokingly were to have said "Yeah, I killed JFK." That wouldn't have been considered "evidence" of that person's culpability in JFK's death. But if there were other evidence that established the plausibility of that person having possibly killed JFK (worked at the Book Depository, hated JFK, owned a rifle, expert markmsman, etc...) then the statement becomes a kind of evidence-- a confession.
So the status of something as "evidence" and not merely data can change based on the context.
Here's another example. There was water all over the floor of my kitchen. Initially, we suspected that I may have spilled some water while filling a humidifier. There was evidence for that in the form of my own memory that I had spilled some, a few hours earlier, and there were water streaks down the side of the humidifier. This seemed to be supprting evidence. But then my wife remembered that she had filled a pan to check for leaks in it and then forgot all about it. That pan was now empty. In light of that evidence, which was very compelling (we even verified that there was indeed a leak in that pan) the earlier "evidence" STOPPED being evidence at all.
And this ambiguity, imho, is exploited politically all the time.
I think Scott means to wrap that up in the second bullet point ('we have evidence X is false'), but of course, there are important distinctions there. Of which journalists may not be aware, or may not spend much time on.
Words and phrases can have different meanings in different contexts, and that's fine. It sort of reminds me of debates over the term "proof". It's perfectly legitimate to say that something has been "scientifically proven", as long as we understand that we're not talking about proof in the mathematical or logical sense, but in a probabilistic sense.
But with science, we don't actually _know_ that to be true unless we look.
This is an important distinction because in popular culture, 'no evidence' seems to get a lot more headline space than 'we have an untested hypothesis'.
Over the past decade, it feels like the aspect of curiosity and hypothesis have disappeared from science, which has become much more institutionalized, compartmentalized, and formalized. It's 'peer review or gtfo'.
It is not literally correct to say there's 'no evidence'. We don't know! There could be! 'No evidence _yet_' at the absolute minimum.
Coming from academic physics background, the state of medical research boggles me. Let's start from so called "meta studies". Why are they needed? You'd think that if the individual studies were done carefully enough, a single study would be enough to establish a fact. Instead, you see meta studies with sentences like "we examined 142 studies on X for Y, out of which 76% showed statistically significant improvement". If we assume that the majority "vote" here is the correct result, what the hell did the 24% of the studies do wrong? Why aren't the people who made them expunged from the community for doing questionable research?
I think 'expunging people from the community' is a pretty risky path to go down. Perhaps they're looking for a small effect and doing a single study with high enough power is tricky? The real world is a messy place, there's loads of (perfectly innocent, as well as nefarious) ways those 24% of studies could have come to a different conclusion.
The meeting concluded ;)
https://allthingslinguistic.com/post/45448571632/the-opposit...
These signal words act as a silent, passive test of competence in that once you hear them, you can be assured of the speaker's ignorance and discount their opinions accordingly.
Instead I keep a corral of trusted communicators on X. Since I’ve vetted them I can trust their takes a bit more.
Edit: since people seem to be interested. As a practical example, when that latest high temp super conductor news came out I immediately had two or three different deep dives on my feed with balanced takes and solid explanations.
Of course there is abundant evidence that herbal/natural remedies work: thousands and thousands of years' worth, but said evidence has systematically been supressed, destroyed, and denied by that which came after it (many times, on behalf of the Catholic Church which sought to erase paganism in all its forms, which included herbalism and natural healing.) For example, the Aztecs used the poinsetta plant as an antipyretic, which may explain its quite widespread cultivation by the time that the Conquistadores arrived, who subsequently used it as a symbol of Christmas.
But it's hilarious to read the medical "experts" of Wikipedia hold their breath and stamp their widdle feet as they insist that stuff doesn't work, because nobody's dissected and tested it in a sterile lab over the last 50 years.
I hate that phrase. It implies to many people that any level whatsoever of X is a danger to you.
Some examples: "There is no safe level of alcohol consumption" and "There is no safe level of lead".
These both may be technically true. That even one beer a year is worse for your body than complete abstinence. Or even a single fishing weight making incidental contact with your hand is worse then never having touched one.
But c'mon. The amount of risk posed by very low levels of consumption or exposure is so minuscule that we can safely (hah!) declare it okay.
I've seen people calling for lead to be banned from roofing flashing applications, and total bans on alcohol, citing these statements that "there is no safe level...".
You give me a reasonable definition of "safe", and I bet I can determine the safe levels of each of those things. The safe level of alcohol consumption is not 0.0000 units. It's somewhere above that. Same with lead exposure. You can have minimal exposure that results in no discernible difference in your quality of life. Where's that line?
I believe that kind of communication intends to combat the more laissez faire "a beer here and there won't kill you," which glosses over the fact that, yeah, it probably won't, but it's also not without statistical risk. Getting rid of that attitude reduces the risk of alcohol-related health complications across the population as a whole.
Yeah, it's going to be impossible to "communicate" with someone who filled their ears with concrete and is shouting as loud as possible "I think you are the devil (literally)"
This has nothing to do with science communication. Entire swaths of the American public believe "My ignorance is as good as your evidence", or worse, that if they don't personally understand something, then it can't be true.
Quick example, we had creationism before 2010, after 2010 something even worse(terraplanism) appeared.
Thanks for informing me about this term, it's awful and I hate it.
Perhaps someone will study this phenomenon some day, and perhaps use the knowledge they have obtained to do something to address the problem.
Compare that to the unfalsifiable claims of conspiracists like "China engineered the virus but covered it up so well we have no evidence". And then the same people accepting suggestions of a much weaker claim that it escaped from a lab, as proof that what they said all along has been proven correct.
"No evidence" is a perfectly acceptable scientific claim, as open to refutation as any other.
First of all, the authors of the declarations in the example headlines are not "scientists and journalists", they are authorities and journalists. People like CDC officials or the director general of the WHO are of course scientists, but they are not speaking as scientists in those news pieces. They are speaking as politicians.
Secondly, I don't think they used the "no evidence" template so much with COVID because they were "fundamentally confused". Most of the headlines in those examples are clearly politically motivated: authorities wanted people not to panic, to keep working, and above all, to keep consuming. Hence the proliferation of "no evidence" headlines for things like the virus being airborne (inconvenient for bars, restaurants, shops, etc. - in fact one headline explicitly mentions bars and gyms); kids spreading the virus (inconvenient for parents taking their kids to school and therefore being able to work as ususal), etc. Each and every one of the headlines was very convenient to keep the wheels of "business as usual" spinning, what a coincidence, right? So no, they were not "fundamentally confused", they just were trying to bias the public towards a certain direction, and a great way to do that is to use the "no evidence" narrative which, as the post author explains, is ambiguous so no one can accuse them of outright lying.
Note that I'm not saying there aren't examples where such headlines do stem from confusion. I just don't think it's the case of the particular examples in this post.
Whence motivating the popular reaction that understands an authority claiming "no evidence" as strong evidence of the thing.
It's a correct reaction way more often than it's wrong. But it steals the possibility from scientists to claim that despite several studies looking for it, there's no evidence (e.g. of vaccines causing autism).
Or, in other words, what those politicians did is an irresponsible society-destroying act. They should be held accountable for it.
He's not claiming this is logical, only that empirically it's a good strategy.
A parallel might be that if the board of a company in the midst of a scandal puts out a statement saying "We have full faith in the CEO", your actual conclusion should be that the CEO is on their way out. This isn't what the words mean, but in practice it often turns out to be the right bet to make.