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That's just trivial to debunk. Infertile people may produce neither.

Less trivial: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/46,XX/46,XY

https://academic.oup.com/bjs/article-abstract/69/5/279/61857... "Ovulation in a cytogenetically proved phenotypically male fertile hermaphrodite"

Ovotesticular syndrome: https://rarediseases.org/rare-diseases/ovotesticular-disorde...

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There are still only two types of gametes, and a body may produce only one. Infertility and other disorders don’t change that fact, and your linked material says nothing to contradict this.

You could at least bother to read the titles; "Ovulation in a cytogenetically proved phenotypically male fertile hermaphrodite" is pretty clear.

> Histology of his removed ovary suggested that ovulation had, at some time, occurred. He had also fathered a child and this is believed to be the first case of a cytogenetically proved true hermaphrodite who is fertile as a male.

That's a single human body that produced both forms of gamete.

People of ambiguous sex exist, and there are only two sexes. I suspect you’re more than capable of accepting these two truths simultaneously.

> For example, my sex is “0” (and not “1”)...

So, which is this individual, who produces both forms of gametes?

Am I, with no gametes, a null?

I’m confident that you’ll figure it out on your own.

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