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In fact, their languages are not known to be genetically related at all, unlike the Slavic and Romance languages, which are distantly related through Proto-Indo-European. So maybe we could say it would be like confusing the French with the Hungarians. :-)

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Yes, but just like the Hungarians and the French, these two peoples also lived close together, and were culturally and socially involved with one another, even if they spoke completely unrelated languages. Its the same in India as well, there are about 3 different language families spoken in India, but they largely share the same cultural heritage.

Actually, they lived about the same distance apart as Paris and Budapest.

They of course were aware of each other, but for the most part were separate. The Aztec empire did not include the Maya.

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