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Is it 2% or 2 percentage points?

Like, if the attractive fund manager gets a 4% ROI, is the unattractive one getting 6% or 4.08% (0.08 is 2% of 4%).

"2% per annum", per the abstract, so the ugly manager returns 6%. I agree the effect seems too large to be believable.

Generally speaking, in finance, if you mean the former you'd say "by 200 basis points" in order to disambiguate.