IRS tax code change in Section 174: R&D is an expense
twitter.com
twitter.com
Another change in recent years that mostly affected some tech companies was making free employee meals taxable.
This is basically an attempt at increasing the incentives for monopoly formation. If you are big enough you can shrug it off and even buy a tax distressed company at a discount.
By now, it's old news for both the tax and tech communities.
https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=35614313
I thought there were a few large threads but could only find these :/
[1] https://taxfoundation.org/research/all/federal/research-deve...
> An example:
> A company has $1.2M in revenue; and $1M in costs (let's assume all costs are employing devs fulltime).
> Before 2022: the profit of the company is $200K. Pays corporate tax on this.
> In 2022: the profit of the company is $1M (of the $1M in salaries paid for devs, this needs to be amortized over 5 years: so $200K can be amortized for the year). Need to pay corproate tax on this. But the business might not have this much cash on hand, and so needs to borrow at a high interest rate. MASSIVE change!
> ... and so now companies are incentivized to have as little R&D expenses as possible (aka fire fulltime devs doing R&D, unless they can front the 5-year spread).
Anytime you see such categorical claims you're being manipulated by the author. As an aside, people here go crazy over calling out logical fallacies but seemingly fail to recognize actual rhetorical persuasion.
In fact, page 2 , paragraph 1 of the IRS doc you linked to actually uses some of the same wording as the tweet does:
* (1) Former § 174(a)(1) provided that a taxpayer may treat research or experimental expenditures which are paid or incurred by the taxpayer during the taxable year in connection with the taxpayer’s trade or business as expenses which are not chargeable to capital account. The expenditures so treated were allowed as a deduction. *
While I would agree that the tweet's wording could have been better - and your quote is clearer - the tweet above is not wrong.
> Before 2022: the profit of the company is $200K. Pays corporate tax on this.
> In 2022: the profit of the company is $1M (of the $1M in salaries paid for devs, this needs to be amortized over 5 years: so $200K can be amortized for the year). Need to pay corproate tax on this. But the business might not have this much cash on hand, and so needs to borrow at a high interest rate.
Can someone ELI5? If the salaries are $1M, how can you consider profit to be anything but $200k? How does the profit become $1M?
EDIT: It's actually a little worse than this, you can only amortize 10% on the first year
So, in lets say 2023 your business brings in $1.2M of revenue from a pure-software product. Your net cashflow is $0.2M because you paid $1M to the dev team. Come tax time you have to report a revenue of $1.2M and the maximum allowed expenses are $0.2M so you have to pay taxes on that $1M of profit.
The reason the maximum allow expenses are $0.2M is because Software is considered R&D now so the expenses towards it (the $1M in salary) _must_ be amortized over 5 years. So if next year you also had $1.2M of revenue and $1M of salaries you'd be paying profit on $1.2 - 2 * ($0.2M) since there's two years of salaries be amortized now.
Details:
https://www.onlycfo.io/p/new-tax-rule-is-terrible-for-softwa...
the production of the software could be either the copying of the bits, rather than the writing of the code.
For example, in the case of the novelist, is the cost of sale of a book the cost of printing and distribution? the writing of the book is not a COGS cost.