A lot of people are making a point of the "quasi-particle vs particle" distinction. Other than an actual monopole particle being a never-before observed thing, would there be any actual difference in the use and application of a monopole particle vs a monopole quasi-particle?

In other words, should we expect that this discovery (and the apparently previously discovered monopole quasiparticles) have the exact same use and application as a hypothetical normal particle monopole?