After all, most humans when asked to explain shor's algorithm in iambic pentameter would just say no.
https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=38445578
Some are spending 5+ hours a day on Character.AI chatting. I don't know what they're chatting to but I assume some chats follow a relationship format
https://www.reddit.com/r/CharacterAI/comments/14tfwue/screen...
It should never have been taken as seriously as it has, just as Asimov's Three Laws of Robotics should never have been taken seriously. Both presuppose rigidly and objectively defined values for, respectively, self-awareness and morality, where none exist. If anything they reveal more about human intellectual bias, popular cultural assumptions (and possibly hubris) than they do anything about AI.
The goalposts must be moved because we still don't even know what the nature of the game is.
I am sure that Turing in his original publication soecific the conditions manner under which a Turing test should be performed. That was over half a century ago though. What are we more interested in, when talking about the concept of a Turing test, the exact version that Turing described, basically v0, or a test which captures that concept that AGI can be tested via an exchange of language? I think the latter is the much more useful and fundamental concept: The hypothesis that AGI can be tested purely via language has not been disproven for Turing tests of sufficiently large compelxity/length. Hence I find it most useful to think of the Turing test of a family of tests that have in common that they are a purely language based conversation but that may be held on different time, complexity or adversiality scales.
Why would I interpret the definition like this instead of sticking to the original paper? Because the article here makes the fallacy that the v0 Turing test not detecting AGI implies that the "AGI can be tested bia language" is in question. This is just not true.