If you have the time to help me with my understanding then I would appreciate it.
I'm looking at wikipedia's formal definition, which says that for x to be computable, you need to provide a function from naturals to integers such that if you pick a denominator of a fraction (n), this function can give the numerator such that (f(n)-1)/n and (f(n)+1)/n end up straddling the value which is computable.
So, for an integer N, you make f(x) = xN then (f(n)-1)/n = N-(1/n) and (f(n)+1)/n = N+(1/n).
Therefore, for any integer N, it is computable.
Now, what is stopping me from doing something similar with a real?
If I say: f(x) = floor(xN)
Now (f(n)-1)/n = floor(n*N)-(1/n)
It is at this point where I realise I need to go to bed and sleep. If you see this and have the time to explain to me where it falls apart with reals, then I will be most happy. To be clear - I'm quite sure I am wrong, and this isn't me being passive aggressive about it.