Google share split is naked power grab
finance.yahoo.com
finance.yahoo.com
http://blogs.reuters.com/felix-salmon/2012/04/13/googles-evi...
Quoting at length:
Dual-class voting shares were illegal for most of the 20th Century, but came back in 1986. James Sterngold’s NYT story on their reintroduction is well worth a read, featuring as it does comments against the new rules from both Felix Rohatyn (”The one-share, one-vote rule is pretty fundamental to the market”) and T Boone Pickens (”Let’s face it, managements want this because they want to entrench themselves. They went to Congress to get protection and they didn’t get it. So they went to the exchange to get protection, and they got it.”)
Even then, however, there were safeguards, including the crucial one that a majority of independent shareholders — excluding management and some directors — had to approve the move... Google has, now, clearly violated the spirit of the NYSE rules, if not their letter. It took 15 months for the independent directors on the board to be persuaded of this, in long and secret deliberations
According to http://www.investopedia.com/articles/fundamental/04/092204.a... , Ford has dual-class and I'm pretty sure that it has had it long before 1986. Of course, Ford may have had dual-class before the "most of the 20th century" rules were written and may have been grandfathered.
FWIW, Berkshire-Hathaway (buffet's toy) has dual-class stock.
http://www.nytimes.com/2012/04/12/business/whats-up-with-goo...
> Investors typically have Class A stock now. They will be given an equal number of Class C shares, which won’t have any voting power. The value of the Class A stock will be split between the two, so if the stock is trading at $600 when it happens, a Class A share will be worth $300 and a Class C share will be worth $300. Investors will have twice the number of shares they held before, but the total voting power and stock value won’t change. So if Bob owns 100 shares worth $600 each, he will own 200 shares worth $300 each. Bob will still have 100 votes, and the value of all his shares will still be $60,000.
What I don't get is why one shouldn't immediately sell non-voting C-shares and buy voting-power A-shares back. Or only buy A-shares. Normally non-voting shares will be compensated by a bigger dividend. But Google doesn't pay a dividend (yet)?
It seems like they're doing this for exactly the reason they say they are: They want to be able to grant employees an equity stake in the company without diluting the voting rights of existing shareholders. No one would have any right to complain if they chose instead to maintain the existing distribution of voting rights by paying employees in cash rather issuing new shares. Which makes the only thing you can legitimately complain about that this will cause them to tend to issue more stock as employee compensation rather than paying in cash -- and that's just a business decision. (And generally a pretty good one for the shareholders, since employees with an equity interest in the company have a direct financial interest in ensuring the company's success.)
If Google had ever claimed that they would listen to outside shareholders, or even if they hadn't gone out of their way to state that they wouldn't, then the power grab would be deceptive and evil.
Google had significant cash reserves before going public and has never had a period where they spent enough cash to go below what they received from the IPO. Facebook is in a similar position of having tons of cash and nothing to do with it.
Not to mention, both companies delayed their IPO as long as legally possible, which strongly suggests that they wouldn't have filed if they could get away with it.
That's not to say that there are no benefits from becoming a public company. It makes life much better for the employees who received stock options (though it doesn't provide as much of a benefit to, e.g., Larry Page and Sergey Brin). But it's fair to say that neither Google nor Facebook were enthusiastic about going public.
Why is this evil again?
To simplify, let's say I own 10% of Google, what this stock split does is leave me with a 10% ownership stake in Google, but only in possession of 5% of the voting rights in a board election - effectively taking away half of my oversight of the company by fiat.
That doesn't appear to be the case at all. If you currently own 10% of the voting shares of Google, on the day of the stock split, you will still own 10% of the voting shares -- the same shares, in fact. But you'll also now own ~10% of a new class of non-voting shares. Heck, if you wanted to, you could sell your new non-voting shares and use the money to buy voting shares, and end up with an even larger percentage of the voting shares than you had before.
It's just that you can't -- and couldn't have even before this -- acquire a majority of the votes, because they remain in the hands of the founders, who aren't selling.
>> New investors will fully share in Google's long term economic future but will have little ability to influence its strategic decisions through their voting rights.
If I misunderstand, please correct me. As I see it, instead of splitting 10x voting stock held by the founders, they are issuing non-voting stock to everyone.
I'm curious to know how they will differentiate between voting and non-voting common shares in the stock market - it seems one is worth at least marginally more than the other.
Listed companies have different tickers for each class of shares.