Edit: is that correct or is there an apostrophe Im missing? It would better if you were française, n'est-ce pas?
Spanish speakers also make this mistake. I haven't met German speakers, but they also say the equivalent of "is (adjective) since (time)" in German. It makes me wonder if English is just unusually strict about this distinction compared to other European languages.
This is an international forum, we're well accustomed to being able to parse meaning despite a few inconsequential grammatical issues.
If someone was to be really odious and hateful, the presence of that sort of thing could be harmful, but this seems like a polite correction of a common problem. And it is an international forum, there are plenty of people who might get something from language-chat.
Finally it was able to give me the Spanish "Él hizo esto" vs "Él ha hecho esto," but admitted that whether one used one vs the other was quite regional.
In Spanish, they do make a distinction in neutral speech, but it's not uncommon for someone to only ever use one or the other depending on the region they're from. The auxiliary verb form ("haber hecho" / "to have done") is more common in Spain than Latin America. Though, I don't know how much we should go into this; I feel like we've kind of derailed from the original topic.