Microsoft quietly buys Netscape browser technology (and patents)
slashgear.com
slashgear.com
That being said, I'm curious why they felt these patents were worth $1B. There must be something really special in there.
(Disclaimer: Mozilla employee with no knowledge outside of what's been posted on the Internet about it.)
Apparently Netscape patented them all once upon a time.
Only because they need it. If they can use those patents to achieve the same effect being nice would, I have no doubt they'll use force. As far as I know them, being nice isn't in their DNA.
You see, once you have owned a patent, no one can use that particular patent against you. Ever.
So Firefox is safe, at least from those patents.
Maybe they did it for the same reason Google bought Motorola, to prevent a havoc AOL.
Chrome is another story, Motorola wants to ban Windows, XBox and other sales all over EU.
http://news.cnet.com/8301-13506_3-57407991-17/microsoft-ends... "on a typical $1,000 laptop, Microsoft must pay Motorola $22.50 in royalties for 50 patents related to H.264. In order to get full H.264 functionality, Microsoft must also license 2,300 other patents from 29 different companies. The company pays 2 cents for each $1,000 laptop to use those patents."
They even refused the bond MS was willing to post while the matter in on appeal. Looks like MS bought specially designed nukes to use against a particular and well-armed adversary.
Better article about it: http://www.zdnet.com/blog/networking/microsoft-buys-netscape...
SSL http://news.cnet.com/Netscape-patents-crypto-protocol/2100-1...
cookies http://worldwide.espacenet.com/publicationDetails/biblio?CC=...
Javascript http://www.computerworld.com.au/article/255293/-z_programmin...
Also, it's unlikely Chrome will be Microsoft's target - it's more likely Android will. Chrome is much less of a threat to Microsoft's future and Android includes a WebKit-based browser.
Regardless the license, aren't they still vulnerable to claims of patent violation?
Does the GPL contain a patent grant and/or indemnification clause? I think only the GPL v3 does which wasn't around then.
Besides, wasn't the Netscape code released under the NPL/MPL, partially for this reason?
Exactly. When I wrote the original comment, I didn't remember Netscape invented its own license.
1. Given an implicit patent license between A and B, and a subsequent sale of A's patents to C, is there an implicit license between C and B?
It's certainly not obvious that there would be such a license, as the basis of the original implied license between A and B is A's acting in a way that only obeys licenses A is subject to if A licenses out A's patents. C would not be in that position, and so it is harder to find implied licensing by C.
2. If there is an implicit license between C and B, what is its scope?
It is quite possible that such a license would be limited to existing products that are practicing the patents.
Quite relevant, BTW, is that Oracle continued to distribute MySQL's code under the GPL, and so Oracle also granted use of every patent that covers the code they acquired. Since the grant extends to derived versions (or it wouldn't be possible to license them similarly), it also covers forks released under GPL.
GPL is, perhaps, Stallman's most brilliant hack.
You can't really make analogies to land, because estates in land are special in law. (I'm going to discuss things from the point of view of US law. This will be somewhat applicable in other Common Law countries, although details vary, and the devil is in the details. Someone else will have to cover Civil Law countries).
A patent license would be covered under contract, not under estates in land. Whether a patent license is binding against future patent owners depends on the nature of the license. If it is an actual license, then there is a good chance it will bind future patent owners. If, however, it is characterized as a covenant not to sue, then there is a good chance that it will NOT bind future patent owners.
There are no hard and fast rules here--the case law is murky, with cases both supporting and contradicting nearly everything I said in the previous paragraph. Non-exclusive licenses are more likely to be characterized as covenants not to sue. (And that's explicit non-exclusive licenses--we are on even shakier ground with an implied non-exclusive license).
As you note, it is relevant that Oracle continues to distribute the GPL code they bought. This means that the conditions that might imply an implicit patent license in GPLv2 apply to them. The case that is interesting, and much more uncertain, is where party A releases GPLv2 code covered by a patent they control, and later they sell the patent to party B, and B does NOT distribute any GPLv2 products that use the patent, and so the only way to find that B is providing an implicit patent license is to find that they are bound by such licenses that A granted.
In general, it is simply bad practice to rely on implied licenses. Even if a court finds that they survive a transfer, there is a serious risk that the scope of the transferred license will be limited to those who already had a license at the time of the transfer.
A good software license, free or non-free, should be explicit about patents.
Has been tested in court? I think the answer is no. The logic Stallman brings up seems valid, though.