How did anyone think that was okay, and how did it escape notice for 25 years.
How did anyone think that was okay, and how did it escape notice for 25 years.
As does B&H.
Years ago (approaching, if not a decade ago).
Amazon doesn't do that, they say the sale happened where the buyer is.
B&H does the same.
Apple says "it happened in Cupertino, so we'll pay taxes related to Cupertino and our special tax agreement with Cupertino".
Amazon/B&H example was that they were not collecting sales taxes in states they did not have a physical presence in, until the South Dakota Wayfair ruling.
But your state could not make the seller collect the use tax for the state so instead consumers were required to report those purchases to their state and pay the tax.
Almost no consumer did that, except for items that had to be registered like cars where the state would not allow registration if the use tax was not paid, and so the use tax was widely openly evaded.
For online purchases where the buyer and seller were in the same state the state did have the power to make the seller collect sales tax and I believe most states did.
It was pretty common though for the tax to be the sales tax at the seller's location, not the buyer's location. And not just in the US--prior to 2015 a seller in an EU country selling online to a buyer in another EU country collected their own country's VAT not the buyer's country's VAT.
A few years ago the Supreme Court in the US decided that states could make online sellers in other states collect for them. I believe it is technically use tax that is collected in this case, not sales tax, but since the rates are the same and most consumers weren't even aware of use taxes, so everybody just calls it sales tax.
Moving everything to electronic payments should make this possible. Then it would be even possible to implement marginal sales taxes, so that you are progressively taxing consumption. Which would make it impossible to avoid taxes by being so wealthy that you can take a loan out to fund your lifestyle and hence not have to pay income taxes.
It's the same thing with "buyer-reported sales taxes": nice in theory, impossible in practice (note that this isn't a hypothetical: as others have mentioned in the thread, before sales taxes were extended to internet purchases you were supposed to report internet purchases as use taxes, which approximately nobody did).
And you do not have to worry about figuring out valuations of a million different kinds of wealth or who owns what. A much simpler formula for taxation, you spend up to $x, tax rate is y%, and so on and so forth.
There was an article on here a few days ago about someone trying to do so and no one at the state tax office could figure out what was actually needed for them to do so.
https://www.cdtfa.ca.gov/taxes-and-fees/use-tax.htm#Overview
From a quick google I think a lot of the additional confusion is the mix of Use/Sales tax when they mostly (as a customer) have the same meaning but for a tax authority have different meaning, searching for "Washington how to declare sales tax" turns up a bunch of random stuff about regulations for retailers showing sales tax correctly, if you search for "Washington how to declare use tax" actually brings up the correct documents from the state, I can def see some bureaucrat not connecting that that's what was actually meant.
I guess the idea of sales tax is that the sales was facilitated by the state through things like roads and infrastructure. But is it true for online sales? It's certainly less true than something I buy downtown main Street. So what gives?
[1] https://www.supremecourt.gov/opinions/17pdf/17-494_j4el.pdf