is semantically different from
> "The right of each person to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed".
A group can have a right in the general sense that is restricted from individuals in that group. Note that this is a different construct than is used in the First Amendment (and I have a hard time believing that the framers took their semantic decisions in drafting these phrases lightly):
> "Congress shall make no law ... abridging the freedom of speech"
In the first I'm specifically referring that it says the right is to the people to petition grievances. The wording pretty clearly doesn't prohibit congress from stopping non-people from assembling/petitioning.
If you can't have a gun you are necessarily not a person based on the present day interpretation of the courts. Therefore most aliens are not people and law can prohibit their grievances (derogatory posts perhaps) and assembly and abridge their protection from search and seizure.
Note:
>> "Congress shall make no law ... abridging the freedom of speech"
Lol you purposefully chopped off the part where some of that was explicitly qualified to 'people' rather than to anyone!
You mean the bit after the clause I cited, which applies to a different thing than the freedom of speech?
My objection, to be clear, is your insistence on bending over backwards to justify the assertion that the denial of one right necessarily implies the denial of other rights based on a strange inversion of the idea of "personhood".
Otherwise, what does it mean to you? Is your view that simply being physically capable of doing something means you're 'free' to do it?
Do you think people in North Korea have freedom of speech? After all, they can say whatever they like. It just comes with a cost (life in a labor camp).
Which seems a bit silly, most people understand it to mean 'free' above a certain underlying threshold.
e.g. swear words in a kindergarten
Every possible human action does not have a punishment or a deterrent applied by those with power.
Freedom to do X means there's no punishment for doing X.
Since every living member of society has some non-zero amount, it would still be the case that free speech is practically impossible, if you set the bar too low. As the chances of that applying to at least 1 person out of 8 billion is pretty close to 100%.
So then the question is, how high exactly is the bar above zero?
Would it be okay to deny entry to a foreigner because they're black? Or gay? They don't have a right to enter anyways, so I guess it's okay.
This is really about "how does the negative things they say about the US affect how they'll improve the US by being there, if at all" which is really the general rule for most immigration; how can this person help and improve the country they're entering.
Likewise, I expect that it is not in the USA's best interest to do this, let alone fair to the person who would immigrate into the the US.
Is this meant as a straw man?
When does criticism become hate, and how to do you judge speech anyways. Reminds me of that guy in Hong Kong who was given a huge fine and banned from trading in the HKSAR because he said Evergrande would go insolvent. Obviously a hate crime.