Incorrect casual assumptions
thonyc.wordpress.com
thonyc.wordpress.com
1. Theon added theorems to Euclid— by publishing mathematical novelties, he became more than just an editor. [1]
2. Theon’s version of Euclid has been considered the most important textbook ever published. [2]
3. Euclid himself created the elements by compiling theorems from prior mathematicians. So, was Euclid just a textbook editor? [2]
4. Who was a better mathematician in that century? Was Theon top 5? Isn’t that first rate or formidable?
Now, as for Hypatia, one of her biggest critics (Damascius) admitted that her “wisdom exceeding all bounds and especially in the things concerning astronomy,” but suggested that she was more of a mathematician than a true philosopher [3]. Her student Synesius wrote many letters to her, which survive [4]. Hypatia, on the other hand, was dragged to death by a Christian mob. SHWEP.net (my fave podcast) just did some episodes [5].
[1] https://mathshistory.st-andrews.ac.uk/Biographies/Theon/
[2] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Euclid%27s_Elements
[3] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hypatia#Legacy
[4] https://www.livius.org/articles/person/synesius-of-cyrene/
[5] https://shwep.net/podcast/hypatia-of-alexandria-the-life-and...
Copying is backups, on the scale of millennia.
The ceiling in math is very very high. If we're calling Theon first-rate then what do we say about Gauss?
I don't think your idea that being "one of the best of the age" makes you "first-rate" holds any water. A reenactor at a local Renaissance Faire who has never worn a suit of plate armor or ridden a war horse is probably one of the best jousters of the current age, because it's not really pursued any more, but I would never call them a "first-rate, formidable jouster". The medieval scribes who wrote dry annals of what happened each year were among the best writers of their age, because writing was rare, but I wouldn't call them "first-rate, formidable writers". There is an objective component to this kind of language.
Here are a few showing that, when speaking about history, it is normal to reserve terms like "first rate" for the truly exceptional:
"Jonathan Edwards, a very stern Calvinist, is one of the few first-rate geniuses America has to boast in theology."
"For excepting Philae, which belongs as much to Egypt as to Ethiopia, Abu Simbel is the only temple which can be ranked among first rate products of Egyptian genius."
"Pericles likewise is responsible for the epoch-making splendour of Attic art in his time, for had he not so fully appreciated and given such free scope to the genius of Pheidias, Athens would hardly have witnessed the raising of the Parthenon and other glorious structures, and Attic art could not have boasted a legion of first-rate sculptors of whom Alcamenes, Agoracritus and Paeonius are only the chief names."
Plus, all the actual definitions given there are vague enough to not actually solve the ambiguity.
It was the person I'm replying to who used "first-rate" actually. I don't think there's a big difference in meaning between the two.
Usage examples show nuance in the meaning of a word that are not captured in the definition.
“By the early years of King Charles I's reign, these four groups had been renamed to a numerical sequence. The royal ships were now graded as first rank, the great ships as second rank, the middling ships as third rank, and the small ships as fourth rank. Soon afterwards, the structure was again modified, with the term rank now being replaced by rate, and the former small ships now being sub-divided into fourth, fifth and sixth rates” --wikipedia
When figuring out the definition for a term used, the best source is the context it is used. In this case, Hypatia is the benchmark given for what qualifies as "first rank."
You can then argue the author is misusing that term, but that's a different argument that the article doesn't make.
That said, the “of all time” version also doesn’t sound right.
"Who are the first-rate/first rank musicians of $YEAR" does not seem to me like it could be answered with "there were none in that year".
More I'd wager that the editor of the higher performers is better at whatever the topic is than a large enough portion of the rest of the crowd, that folks probably do hold them in some esteem at the topic?
And then we end up with crazy, invisible to us bias in the modern sources. You get accustomed to the bias around the idea and you can't see it any more.
You have to look at the history of sources and their bias to understand the history of ideas. Historical sources don't necessarily contain facts; and they may also convey more than facts.
It's about getting to the spin behind the original sources, then you have a better idea of why the sources tell you what they're telling you. How you read them brings in your own bias (for someone else to examine and weigh up one day). It can be really powerful though, like in the example of Messalina.
You are giving general advice that feels right. I'm asserting the stakes are basically nothing?
I think the stakes are really low too.
And I also think the original post is introducing modern values when it comes to people's work. I don't think in the ancient world that academic brilliance was thought of as a great thing in the same way or possibly to the same extent it is today.
And if that was true, it'd mean the sources wouldn't have thought it was worth remarking on, so we'd get silence. Even if that isn't true, the whole thing is still an argument from silence.
Like, let's bear in mind that most of the population couldn't read, even scribes couldn't read—they just copied. How few people could actually math?
This is sort of like crapping on a modern-day rocket engineer because Slate isn't writing about them. ¯\_(ツ)_/¯
tl;dr I think we agree :)
I think what upset me is the downplaying of how good teachers and editors are. I will certainly make no claim that they are all amazing, but it is a worthwhile job and it doesn't help to dump on it. Punching down, as it were.
Btw it's not that all scribes were illiterate, but definitely some were or perhaps they were just substantially less literate. For their job, copying out sheet after sheet of text, they just needed to know the alphabet. It'd be like learning to copy an alphabet you might not know, like Cyrillic or Arabic. And decent money too.
IIRC the argument for scribal illiteracy had to do with the kinds of scribal copying errors you would see.
There are some errors that suggest a person can read, like homoteleuton. That's when someone sees the phrase "I love you" in a love letter, copies it, and then starts copying from after a second "I love you" lower in the paragraph. "I love you. I'm a terrible person and I know I slashed your tires but... I love you, we should get married" —> "I love you, we should get married".
Other kinds of scribal copying errors betray a lack of reading ability. Like homearchy, where they skip a line because of similarities at the start of the line.
If you're reading along, it becomes obvious the sentence stopped making sense because you skipped a line. But if you're not reading along because you can't, you won't catch the change in meaning.
https://sites.ualberta.ca/~sreimer/ms-course/course/scbl-err...
I could be wrong about this, but I think the Suda is somewhat questionable, isn't it?