The figure in the article shows a diminishing marginal effect of increasing lead exposure, so this is all quite consistent with the theory.
I sure am wondering how much of the late 20th century Flynn effect was due to diminishing lead poisoning.
I sure am wondering how much of the late 20th century Flynn effect was due to diminishing lead poisoning.
Given that the Flynn effect seemed to be strongest in the era of high-lead petrol and has dropped off, I can't see how it could have had an effect