Laying out the context as I did rather negates this:
> I was mainly stating that I think the absence of slavery is needed.
The Industrial Revolution began before slavery ended, there was no "absence of slavery" as a prerequisite.
The UK Abolitionists were a relatively small group of independantly wealthy relatively newly rich, rich on the back of wealth from India and the New World (cheap labour and slave labour) and from trade and shops.
Even after the end of direct UK involvement in the trading of slaves and the closing of their slave plantations in British territories the UK continued to supply copper for use in the slave trade [1] and take significant inputs from the North, Central, and South American slave plantations.
There's no clean break where first cheap labour (slavery or close to it) is eliminated and then machines take over.
At best there's a transition period, but as the world about us demonstrates even when automation and labor saving machinery is wiespread slavery and abuse of labor continues.
[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Manilla_(money)