When did people stop being drunk all the time?
lefineder.substack.com
lefineder.substack.com
Drink and driving prevention and repression certainly played a big part in it.
But I think other factors came at play:
- Science. We know now better about the effect of alcohol. This drove the public opinion into a certain direction. Having the general acceptance this was a bad idea created policies to prevent things like having wine in schools in 1956: https://expat-in-france.com/wp-content/uploads/2022/02/wine-...
- Hygiene. If you can drink water safely from the tap, it helps.
- Moving to a service based society. If you don't have to work in a mine, you drink less.
- Other drugs came around. The ones you identify as such. And the one that are more innocent, like sugar, tv shows and social medias.
Otherwise, you are right. The main ban (children under the age of 14) was in 1956, or 67 years ago.
It certainly is not here in Austria. 17 year olds drinking beer between their late afternoon classes is not unheard of and often tolerated.
Well, it's between classes, in their free time.
Don't know, seems natural to me, since I've grown up with that mindset but not all nations agree on that.
I don't get some countries or people that forbid alcohol until you are 18 or 21. I drank beer when I was 8 and got totally drunk at 14. Which was a good thing, because it was at home and, well, lesson learned. Starting with alcohol when going out at 18 or 21 sounds much more dangerous.
In other countries you will probably be drunk for the first time around the time you're taking driving lessons, or earlier.
Social pressure/not yet fully formed brain etc. leads to ppl under 21 being more likely to drive drunk. That's the rationale for not being able to drink until 21.
"The National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) estimates that minimum drinking age laws have saved more than 31,000 lives from 1975 to 2017"
https://injuryfacts.nsc.org/motor-vehicle/motor-vehicle-safe...
They tested it out and the test was successful. The kids preferred beer to sugary drinks. The beer was much weaker than what adults are accustomed to at 1.5% to 2% alcohol.
The linked article says this was a trial in 2001. Only 1 school did it and it seemed to go well, but no other schools were willing to try it.
it would be extremely difficult to run a marathon without sugar in some form
Also no, it's no more difficult to run a marathon with an all meat, zero carb diet than it is with a carb heavy diet. People run ultramarathons on carnivore diets:
And this is how ancient humans hunted game as well, despite not having access to trail mix and Power Bars, as you can see in the Masaai persistence hunting technique:
(Also: not all bacon is processed)
And yes, all bacon, by definition, is processed meat according to WHO's definition. Bacon is salt-cured meat and the WHO considers processed meat as "meat that has been transformed through salting, curing, fermentation, smoking, or other processes".
I have never heard of this. Where did you get this? Did you know that the only way for cancer cells to create/use energy is by fermenting glucose? They can't use fats or ketones.
> On the other hand, red meat and bacon are known direct cancer risks, […]
Bacon aside, there is no proof which shows that red meat causes cancer. Yes, there are studies that show a correlation between red meat and cancer. However those studies did not differentiate between fresh unprocessed red meat and other processed meat like bacon, sausages, etc.
Edit addendum:
> […] you don't really need bacon and red meat at all, it's something that you can easily take out of your diet.
I'd argue the opposite, bacon aside. Red meat is a highly nutrient dense food. Sugar on the hand is just empty carbs, Metabolizing sugar will drain you body of important vitamins (e.g. B1).
I meant that sugar causes cancer through obesity, not that there's an intermediate step between sugar and obesity.
> Bacon aside, there is no proof which shows that red meat causes cancer. Yes, there are studies that show a correlation between red meat and cancer. However those studies did not differentiate between fresh unprocessed red meat and other processed meat like bacon, sausages, etc.
Most studies do differentiate between unprocessed and processed red meat. And the correlation is fairly strong, not to mention the rest of health effects that a diet high in red meat is associated with.
> I'd argue the opposite, bacon aside. Red meat is a highly nutrient dense food. Sugar on the hand is just empty carbs, Metabolizing sugar will drain you body of important vitamins (e.g. B1).
Do you really think it's easier to take out sugar of your diet? I think the only way is to go full carnivore (not even milk or its derivatives). On the other hand, you don't even have to go vegetarian to remove red meat and bacon from your diet.
Yes, I understood that. However this is new information for me. Where did you get that?
> Most studies do differentiate between unprocessed and processed red meat. And the correlation is fairly strong, […]
Where are those studies? In vivo? In humans?
> […] not to mention the rest of health effects that a diet high in red meat is associated with.
You mean greater longevity, better mental health (less depression, less anxiety, …), better cognitive function?
> Do you really think it's easier to take out sugar of your diet?
Let's say processed sugar. And with "easy" I meant - that you won't suffer any negative health effects in the long term. If you stop eating something and in consequence suffer from malnutrition then that won't be "easy" to keep up in the long term.
There's not a lot of evidence that links sugar intake to cancer risk directly, when controlling for weight. Sugars aren't in the IARC list either. And the link between high sugar intake and obesity is clear too.
Obesity, though, is a well known cancer risk, and for quite a lot of cancers there's causal mechanisms proposed.
> Where are those studies? In vivo? In humans?
The IARC monograph has the details of the evidence collected to declare processed red meat as carcinogenic and unprocessed red meat as probable carcinogenic, and of course it includes studies in humans and studies that separated processed/unprocessed https://monographs.iarc.who.int/wp-content/uploads/2018/06/m...
> You mean greater longevity, better mental health (less depression, less anxiety, …), better cognitive function?
I find it funny that you're asking repeatedly for sources for things that are repeated by every health agency in the world, and then just drop these claims with nothing to back them up.
> Let's say processed sugar.
But no one was saying "processed sugar". The diet I started criticizing was an all-meat diet, with the comment even criticizing fruit.
> If you stop eating something and in consequence suffer from malnutrition then that won't be "easy" to keep up in the long term.
You won't suffer from malnutrition by not eating red meat. In fact, most scientific diet recommendations include the limitation of red meats. You will, however, suffer from malnutrition if you withdraw from all foods that contain natural sugars, because that includes almost all fruits and vegetables.
If we talk about added sugar, diet recommendations usually include limiting its intake too. However, the point I was making in my original comment is that there's far more evidence linking red meat consumption to cancer risk than for sugar, and therefore I can't really trust the advice of someone who claims that an all-carnivore diet is better "because it has no sugar".
Hunter gathers would and still do frequently gorge themselves on honey if they find a hive. They might not have access to a Mars bar but they definitely like sugar.
Keto causes fatty liver disease
Ask a real biologist for details. I know this was covered in my high school classes 30 years ago, but I haven't studied it since so I don't remember details or know anything later research has discovered.
Some tribes hunt, running for several hours, without having breakfast. Their bodies are able to burn fat more efficiently and easily than us probably due to their lifestyle.
Sugar is not "literally poison". What it literally is is the body's primary energy source and a requirement for survival. The fact that eating too much of it is bad for you doesn't make it poisonous. Everything has a median lethal dose (LD50), including water.
You can perfectly healthily enjoy a moderate amount of sugar as part of a varied diet just like you can healthily eat a moderate amount of any food as part of a varied diet. Extreme diet fads and the demonisation of entire food groups work against moderation and variety which are what we actually need in our eating habits.
None of this is to say there isn't a huge sugar problem in modern society, ofc. What I'm saying is the problem is excess, not the consumption of it at all, and demonising it as "poison" and attempting to eliminate it entirely is not the way to bring about moderation.
Long bouts of exercise like a marathon or the Tour de France or medical conditions like diabetes are the only exceptions I can think of where you'd want to instantly flood yourself with glucose.
1) this claim is much weaker than "Sugar is the worst substance for public health ever. It's literally poison."
2) and it can be a good idea if otherwise someone would suffer from caloric deficit dangerous to health and eating more food is not viable (yes, this situation is unusual)
Its hyperbole meant to convey a sense of how bad sugar (particularly added sugars) is to the health of the population. Sugar is in everything (more hyperbole!) in the U.S. America by and large is addicted to sugar and it’s very bad for us. Everything is over sweetened. Can’t even buy bacon without sugar added in some form or other.
Anyhoo. Yes sugar can be good and sugar can be bad. "It's literally poison and worst thing ever" does not productively move the needle of the conversation, almost regardless of interpretation.
This is in contrast to carbs in general, and to protein and fat, where some level of each is useful in the diet and provides a reduction in mortality and CVD risk.
As far as I know, it could be useful in case of huge need for calories.
Which basically never happens with modern lifestyle. But I guess may apply to firefighters working for several days or soldier lugging around piles of equipment.
But unlikely to apply to anyone reading HN. Unless they climb Mount Everest for fun, or volunteer as firefighters or are unlike enough to end in a war zone.
If you need to rely on hyperbole/lies/propaganda then I am going to assume that you have no case.
Second, they ferment fruit because fruit is always slightly poisonous (fructose).
Third, after being close to our primate relatives for some time, our ancestors spent a lot of time hunting, which is not a trait of monkeys we know. They eat more varied meat diet than any predator known, did that for a long time, much longer than (now) we eat crops.
Fourth, we have much higher normal percentage of fat in our body. For men, the normal fat percentage range is from 18% to 22%. Our primate relatives have much less normal fat, for most primates it is less than 9%. Our primate relatives sport bodybuilder's or high performance athlete's fat range just living their life.
As with alcohol, fructose is not a toxin in small doses, because liver can handle it (especially when it is fermented into lactic acid). But it is a toxin in doses we usually experience now. Look for "non-alcoholic fat liver syndrome".
But in general it's a far more complicated causality chain. When weight gain leads to insulin resistance then sugar is poison. We have lifestyles that maximize both a lack of physical labor and an excess of high sugar foods.
https://anthonycolpo.com/sweet-stupidity-part-2-the-bitter-t...
His understanding of what happens to fructose in the liver is fundamentally incorrect.
The way I understand it, poison is an umbrella term that includes toxins, venoms, and chemicals. Its definition is basically "is harmful to living beings", while the other three are specific types/sources of harmful.
Edit: Ended up looking it up, looks like I got poison and toxin backwards. Toxin is the umbrella term.
If you go in a supermarket in EU almost every food product contains sugar.
Why does a peas can has to contain sugar ?
There is exactly one common brand of mayo that has no added sugar. One.
And there's no way to buy sugar-free versions of many other kinds of food, from fried tomatoes sauce, sausages, etc. that were traditionally made without sugar for centuries.
It's a plague.
That just means that the item contains sugars. It doesn't mean that we've added sugars to it. A fresh apple has sugar. A fresh tomato has sugar. Many if not most fruits and vegetables do. It shouldn't be a surprise that the canned/frozen varieties have a bit of sugar on the label.
The pure apple in a can can't last for long.
If the ingredient list contains sugar, it was added.
I dont know if you particular peas have added sugar.
A person weighting 100kg should have less than 10 (ten) grams of sugar in a blood. This is less than 40 calories circulating in the blood of this 100kg person. The same person should have less than 10 (ten) grams of ketones in the blood and it is equivalent to less than 90 calories cirrculating.
Ketones are much more efficient energy source, they are twice as energy-dense. Glucose use needs a quarter of energy stored in the glucose, while fat (ketones) need only 3 (three) percents. Glucose needs insulin, fat (ketones) does not.
Glucose (which is not even table sugar!) is not a main source of energy in the body.
I also think that "variety" is a fad, just like other "extremes" you mentioned.
It is a big deal to chug a bottle of Gatorade while lounging in front of some screen when your body has nothing useful to do with all that sugar.
Simple carbohydrates such as pasta and potatoes break down quickly and can also cause one's blood-sugar to spike.
The trick is to not eat pasta with bread. Many people forget about the bread that they commonly combine with pasta and then blame the bloating and weight gain on the pasta that they had.
I'd imagine that cutting out red sauce, which commonly has added sucrose, would be better still.
Pasta is unique in that it seems to be beneficial, in terms of glycemic load, when eaten on its own. But combining it with other foods, but especially bread, may render it more taxing than other foods.
Which is a common trait of food combinations.
But simple pasta and fish dishes appear quite often in the "blue zones" around the globe. Something I should do a better job of eating more of.
I still add sugar and honey and other sweets to my drink and food. Cuz I'm a fiend. But I do now try very hard to avoid straight fructose.
Even strictly cutting out starch becomes problematic after some time, though my experience is also that humans will get unique health benefits from doing that for stretches. Which avoids the trouble of all-in zero carb.
Which chronic diseases are caused by sugar and nothing else?
People who find themselves consulates, irregular, or have to strain when they go should consider more fiber.
It doesn't, it can't. From paper "Stopping or reducing dietary fiber intake reduces constipation and its associated symptoms" - https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3435786/ :
"Whilst it is often stated in physiology textbooks that bulking agents improve peristalsis, there is no proof of this in practice nor experimentally. Regardless of the food ingested, small intestinal and right mid colonic contents are fluid and all ingestible dietary fiber is suspended therein. Dietary fiber, therefore, cannot act as solid boluses for the initiation of peristalsis. In fact, dietary fiber had been shown to retard peristalsis and hold up gaseous expulsion in human experiments[22]."
> "People who find themselves consulates, irregular, or have to strain when they go should consider more fiber."
They should consider less fiber; from the same paper:
"Dietary fiber is also associated with increased bloatedness and abdominal discomfort[22]. Insoluble fiber was reported to worsen the clinical outcome of abdominal pain and constipation[18-20]. In our recent study, patients who followed a diet with no or less dietary fiber intake showed a significant improvement, not just in their constipation, but also in their bloatedness. Patients who completely stopped consuming dietary fiber no longer suffered from abdominal bloatedness and pain.[...]"
"Stools only become well-formed in the sigmoid colon and rectum and by this time, especially in constipated subjects, more stools result in more evacuation problems. It is not logical to increase both the volume and size of stool in patients with idiopathic constipation and indeed for anybody with difficulty in passing stools, e.g., due to anismus or anal spasm from anal stricture, fissure or pelvic outlet disorders. We have shown that decreasing the bulk and volume of feces immediately enables the easier evacuation of smaller and thinner stools through the anal sphincter mechanism. This eliminates the need to strain in passing stools, and prevents the tearing of the anal sphincter and bleeding due to large and bulky fecal loads. None of our patients experienced anal bleeding or straining following complete abstinence from dietary fiber."
"The results of this study should lead us to reexamine popular beliefs in benefits of dietary fiber and more studies should be undertaken to confirm or repudiate these results."
I run a small business that sells sports drinks and other healthy beverages aimed at athletes. Our drinks have a few grams of naturally occurring sugar, because some ingredients that are naturally hydrating also contain natural sugars. Nothing wrong with that, as opposed to a 16oz BigCorp (Gatorade, Powerade, Lucozade, Carabao, Body Armor, etc...) sports drink that has over 1oz of added artificial sugars. There's a MASSIVE difference. People don't realize that.
I finally understand this phrase! "I worship God and I'm His slave" just never seemed to ring any bells.
Let me tune your system for you: Slave to Love.
To my experience, society changed enough to no longer tolerate--or at least accept as normal- drunken family members. There was a point where the always-drunken-grandfather was suddenly considered ill and no longer just a little weird. A noticed this in my own family when I was still young. There was a point where constant-drunkenness was suddenly frowned upon with a certain vigor. And the younger generation sort of got the message: "I dont want to be like grandpa, he is actually a poor devil..."
- Society is now expected to be your babysitter. If your actions have negative consequences, they should have been forbidden and prevented.
If a lot of people smoke, then a lot of them develop respiratory (and other) problems. So a lot more people need treatment, which could have gone to other patients. At that point it is no longer an individial situation which affects only you, it's a societal problem. Societies which don't address their problems eventually fade out.
It's not babysitting, it's self-defense.
By that same logic we should be locking down juice boxes, donuts, and bacon to prevent heart disease and diabetes.
At some point it’s definitely babysitting and we’re well beyond it.
That’s a pretty dumb example. People clearly want safety features in cars. Seatbelts existed well before they were mandated.
They shouldn’t be mandated but people should wear them anyway.
> No regulation of alcohol use any age anywhere any time.
I’m fine with that too. If someone is drunk and belligerent there’s plenty of other reasons to arrest them.
But having a beer in the park is banned because you’re worried about a bunch of winos?
> No rules for smoking any age any time anywhere. And so on. Pretty soon it would be a mess for everyone.
Having restrictions for children is orthogonal. That’s us as a society deciding that children are not capable of making informed decisions.
We’re not with them 24/7 so we as a society set rules for what we allow them to do when we are not around.
On that topic, I think it’s fine for a parent to give alcohol to their child. That’s the parents decision. But that doesn’t mean I think we should have 10 year olds buying 40’s.
I agree. We should.
> At some point it’s definitely babysitting and we’re well beyond it.
Lol. There is a constant, well-funded psychological warfare to make everyone pick up as many of these harmful and addictive consumption habits as they can. As I'm writing this, and as you are reading this there are teams of people paid by corporate interest working hard to figure out how the best it is to make all of us addicted to sugary drinks in the name of profit. This is completely legal, and even a "respectable" profession. Pushing back against all these forces ever so slightly is now babysitting?
QED: If you want to smoke yourself to death, you can. But the government wants to add some friction to that so it's not the default case for smokers. Taxes, awareness campaigns and (god forbid!) putting some limits on what cigarette companies can add to cigarettes.
It's worth remembering that alcohol sterilizes many otherwise dangerous things. Being drunk all the time can easily be better than being sick all the time.
So no you can't satisfy your long term hydration needs by drinking anything strong enough to be safe by its alcohol content alone.
The sterilizing only really happens in modern wine level alcohol (14%).
However I dove into it, Boiling wasn't always easy, so they didn't always heat it properly for sterilization: https://byo.com/article/raw-ale/.
In old times, a metal vessel large enough to boil an entire batch of wort may not have been feasible. Other techniques were used in these cases.
Say you have a wooden barrel or tub:
* Take off a portion of the wort, boil it, and add it back. This is decoction.
* Heat rocks and add them into the wort.
Define 'old times'?
Fresh water outsiderof cities was abundant, and inside cities there was usually a system of wells, often running water wells at that.
The coffee & alcohol cycle is also an interesting one in the West
High paced work environment & coffee jacking up your nervous system, and then in the evening using alcohol to calm it down (or other calmers like weed or painkillers).
I've heard that green tea can calm down the effects of caffeine (despite containing a bit of caffeine itself). Something to try if you don't want to give up coffee like me.
L-theanine
Yeah! I've personally experimented (n=1) quite thoroughly with it. It truly reduces or eliminates caffeine jitters.This product is excellent for energy on the go. Caffeine and l-theanine in a single pill. I keep a few in my bag. I don't know if there's anything special about this particular product. There are other ones that may be better/cheaper. But I've gone through a few bottles of it in the past years and am pleased: https://www.amazon.com/gp/product/B07MQWJYJ3
You can buy it separately but I don't see the point.
Well, clearly a lot of people like coffee and probably don't want to have a side of green tea with their coffee, so... you can see the point, right? =)I do buy it separately. It's dirt cheap. I stir it into my coffee. Reduces caffeine jitter.
That all said, editorial time: caffeine is not awesome. It is a psychoactive substance (duh) and eventually it goes from "fun boost" to "I need this to feel normal." At least for me. I do have some every day but my goal is always to drink the smallest reasonable amount for me in order to manage my energy. Respect to people who drink 0mg.
Biggest issue I think would be making sure that there aren't any tells like flavor or some quality of the additive.
Brew identical looking bottles of cold brew. Label the bottoms 1 through whatever. Mix them up. Label the lids A through whatever. Probably need to add some creamer to mask any possible sediment. Drink from them throughout the week. Note the lid label and your reaction. At the end of the test period look at the bottoms of the bottles to correlate the controls and placebos with your experiences.
I personally don't feel the need with this particular thing though. It's a fairly pronounced difference.
It's also not really susceptible to the placebo effect IMO. Could I imagine some vague promised positive effect? Absolutely yes. Could I imagine the erasure of jitters? I don't think I could placebo that away.
Anyway as linked in another post this is well-studied.
That said:
- I'm middle aged and have had tens of thousands of cups of coffee
- The difference is pronounced, not subtle
- It's well-studied https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/18296328/
FWIW, I've played around with a lot of supplements. Generally the effects are non-existent or subtle. I'm not generally given to a placebo effect wrt this kind of stuff
But caffeine and even coffee specifically seem to have positive health effects. If people are happy with 0mg they should continue that, but if people are happy with low doses of caffeine they should also continue that.
Personally I love coffee, but I limit myself to one cup a day and drink yaupon when I want more caffeine. This results in less sweating, nausea, anxiety. Supposedly yaupon should help with stress relief as well, but I doubt it's a strong enough effect to overcome learning that a new ticket is due in 5 hours.
I've been overwhelmed by Gyokuro before...
Europe went from a depressant to a stimulant, suddenly lots of science.
Why didn't the caffeinated beverages stimulate the advancement of science in the countries where those plants are native from?
The enlightenment happened for the same reason that the renaissance happened. Exploration and introduction to new lands, knowledge, goods, wealth, etc. The renaissance was the result of western europe's direct connection to east ( china, india, etc ) via the mongol empire in the 1200s. The enlightenment is the result of western europe's direct connection to the americas via columbus in the late 1400s. It's not an accident that most scholars use 1500 as the boundary between the renaissance and the enlightenment.
No.
> My understanding of history is that up until like the 16th century North Africa, the Middle East, and India were global leaders in science and industry.
If anyone were 'global leaders' back then it was probably india and china but both were predominantly tea drinking societies. But there were no real global leaders of 'science and industry' back then because 'science and industry' didn't exist as we define it today and nobody had global influence. North africa hadn't been a leader of anything since the fall of ancient egypt. The middle east had it's moments of glory but far more moments of embarrassment ( european, mongol, turkish, etc conquest ).
Arguing coffee was behind the enlightenment is as silly as arguing tea is why britain conquered the world.
Not true; see Carthage. They dominated trade and seafaring, and were even the first to sail around Africa (as opposed to the Portuguese, 2,000 years later). Ancient Egypt was in its heydey 2,000 years before Carthage.
If your daily diet was previously primarily vegetables with some meat and in season fruits, and then suddenly you're having sugar with every meal, you would probably have more energy to work harder with the extra focus the caffeine provides.
https://michaelpollan.com/books/caffeine-how-coffee-and-tea-....
Citation? It sounds a lot like that's something that you find convenient to believe, perhaps because you gave up coffee and you want to tell yourself you did something good for yourself.
Coffee is essential for my productivity, not for pleasure.
>Coffee is essential for my productivity, not for pleasure.
For sure it is (for the reasons I described above). As for pleasure: I don't know, maybe you are the one who hates its smell, and taste, and just takes it as a medecine. It's not impossible, but it would make you an outlier.
Btw, I do consume caffeine, nicotine, and sometimes alcohol. I'm just conscious nothing of those gives me a superpower. Even though they can give a subjective feeling of superpower sometimes.
Yes, the baseline is unchanged - but it's controlled and on demand.
Here in north if we drink during lunch, we keep going.
University students are adults though, so that's not that surprising? (Well, Americans are a bit of an outlier with their 21 drinking age)
Uh...if you have to work with the public, or incompetent people, you may be driven to drink more. The people who work in infosec seem to be the drunkest I know. They do mostly leave it for after work though, because it has gotten quite easy to do sobriety tests on people that are more than subjective.
Less so in tech-heavy Utah, I imagine.
If you don't have to work in an 1800s-England-style coal mine, sure. Modern mining is a high risk occupation with stringent controls on intoxicants.
https://elpais.com/gastronomia/el-comidista/2015/11/11/artic...
In Spanish, but if you are a French speaker you might get some hints.
Ad from 1961:
https://verne.elpais.com/verne/2014/10/13/articulo/141317743...
What people here would find unbelievable is how much we drank as teenagers. I remember drinking mixes (double shot of hard liquors, like gin, with soda) as soon as 14 and they would serve us openly in bars. Different times.
Unless you are a software dev...
I'm one of those persons that think this is a luxury job.
Not buying it. Common sense has always been enough to see the downsides of alcohol. If people dont care about losing motor functioning and having a painful hangover right now they wont care about a chance they will have liver problems in 40 years.
But I often think about the framers of the Constitution drinking vast quantities that fateful, blistering summer of 1787: http://johnjayhomestead.org/wp-content/uploads/In-the-Cups-o...
They were, and remain, literally some of the most functional human beings in history.
Fascinates me to see these two extremes in behavior.
"For sailors the beer supplied was of the strong kind (10%-15% alcohol) since this was the only kind that preserved itself well in the sea, hence drunk as a sailor."
Would 4.5L of 2% ABV make you drunk? Depends how quickly you can drink it. It's 9 units of alcohol. We commonly assume the body can process 1 unit/hour so if this quantity was consumed over an entire day, I don't think you'd get merry.
I'm not saying it's a good idea to drink like this, just highlighting the impact of ABV on the outcome.
Everyone else is the much lower estimate discussed up thread.
> Manageable over the course of a day, but you’re definitely drinking.
Maybe I'm a lightweight, I would be absolutely trollied if I had to drink eight 13% pints over the course of a day. I have never been anywhere where they'd even sell you an entire pint of 13%, you are in 2/3rd or maybe even 1/3rd territory.
They recently started selling it in 12oz bottles, so it’s no longer a commitment but rather a choice.
Er, no! Perhaps in Ireland? In the UK the term "alcohol-free" can only be used if the drink has no more than 0.05% alcohol. However apparently it's allowed to use the term "alkoholfrei": take a look at the bottles of "Erdinger alkoholfrei" in UK supermarkets with tiny smallprint explaining that it's not alcohol-free (it's 0.5% and tastes quite good).
The rules may have changed fairly recently. They always used to sell "shandy" with 0.5% alcohol as a soft drink to children but I'm not sure if they still do that.
There's another rule that says you can't sell a drink that has the same brand name as an alcoholic drink to children, so children can't buy alcohol-free Heineken (which has 0.05% alcohol), for example.
(I think I read somewhere that they had to create a special exception for soy sauce in Australia because soy sauce can have up to 2% alcohol but obviously nobody's going to quaff it and if they did the 2% alcohol would probably not be their biggest problem.)
From a quick tesco search Punk AF (https://www.tesco.com/groceries/en-GB/products/304722896) and Lucky Saint (https://www.tesco.com/groceries/en-GB/products/311448058) both contain the terms "alcohol free" prominently on the front but are 0.5%.
There are also a bunch of 0.0% beers, and their fine print is how you say, no more than 0.05%, but at least Brewdog and Lucky Saint are getting away with using the term for 0.5%, and I am sure I've seen more of that kind of thing.
The sources and numbers are getting mixed up here but on the topic of the Founders, the small beer George Washington was brewing was probably in the vicinity of 1%. I think it's pretty safe to say that a guy sipping 1% all day might get a bit of a buzz and not much more, especially considering the tolerance he'd build up.
As with anything the dose makes the poison. I've consumed a lot of alcohol over my life, but as I get older my friends and I have mostly lost our interest in experiencing anything beyond a mild buzz. At a bar we frequently order a lemonade/Sprite along with our beers and make DIY shandies [2] which brings the alcohol content down to like 2.5%. It's pretty hard to get drunk at that level even if you go at it for hours. Throw in a water here and there and it's even lower. I only wish society and the industry was more supportive of this manner of drinking, but the bars undoubtedly make less money off of us than the guy who goes full bore and ends up behind the wheel plastered...
[1] https://goodstuffdrinks.com/blogs/the-good-stuff/how-much-al...
> Er, no! Perhaps in Ireland? In the UK the term "alcohol-free" can only be used if the drink has no more than 0.05% alcohol.
The government says the threshold is 1.2%.
https://www.gov.uk/government/publications/low-alcohol-descr...
"Low alcohol" -> 1.2% ABV (the threshold at which beer duty has to be paid)
"De-alcoholised" -> 0.5% ABV
"Alcohol free" -> 0.05% ABV
"Non-alcoholic" -> "should not be used in conjunction with a name commonly associated with an alcoholic drink" except communion wine.
Advertising Standards Authority:
> The alcohol section of the Codes applies to ‘alcoholic drinks’, which are those above 0.5% ABV. Drinks at or below 0.5% are, for the purposes of the Codes, considered to be non-alcoholic.
https://www.asa.org.uk/news/advertising-zero-alcohol-product...
You're right about this though:
> There's another rule that says you can't sell a drink that has the same brand name as an alcoholic drink to children, so children can't buy alcohol-free Heineken (which has 0.05% alcohol), for example.
and it's 'worse' - you can't buy 'no-secco' or 'apple fizz' or whatever they're marketed as, even though they're absolutely nil alcohol, not removed, it was never there. But obviously other cordials and carbonated soft drinks like San Pelligrino, Shloer etc. are fine, just because they're not made to look like a sparkling wine bottle.
"Alcohol free – this should only be applied to a drink from which the alcohol has been extracted if it contains no more than 0.05% abv"
But: "the decision was made to replace the legislation with guidance setting out the four existing descriptors that industry will be expected to follow"
So (1) it's not clear that Brewdog and Lucky Saint (mentioned by SCdF elsewhere in this thread) are breaking an actual law by failing to follow the guidance which Erdinger apparently does claim to follow, and (2) perhaps that rule really does apply only to "a drink from which the alcohol has been extracted", so perhaps it wouldn't apply to a shandy made by diluting alcoholic beer?
which is basically just rules about how you can market (it's fun and cool to drink alcohol kids!) 'alcoholic drinks', i.e. anything under 0.5% can be marketed in ways that says you can't for alcoholic drinks.
But a slightly different page than the one I quoted above goes on to say the same as yours:
> In terms of the official guidance, the descriptor ‘alcohol free’ should only be used on drinks from which the alcohol has been extracted if it contains no more than 0.05% ABV. Where a product has had the alcohol extracted but it remains above 0.05% ABV but at or below 0.5% ABV, the descriptor would be ‘de-alcoholised’.
https://www.asa.org.uk/news/low-and-no-alcohol-drinks.html
So yes, either it tells you something about how they're making it, or they're wrong to be using that 'descriptor'. (Surely the former? Brewdog make 'Punk AF', they'd have to rebrand it completely if they're not allowed to call it 'AF', surely they'd have been on top of that?)
Oh wait though - the page I originally quoted goes on:
> CAP is aware that official government guidance exists on how alcohol content at or below 0.5% should be described, but understands that this guidance is not legally binding. Therefore, the Codes do not require compliance with this guidance.
which explains why I couldn't find anything enacted on legislation.gov.uk. So it is just a matter for them as the regulator, but these two pages on their own site seem to be in contradiction about whether they care about use of the 'descriptor' or not?
Why make this call out?
0.5% is an EU regulation than Ireland specific. And apparently the same level in the US from my (just done now) googling.
Before Austria joined the EU (in 1995) there used to be significant differences in the rules on food labelling between Austria and Germany, to the extent that sometimes a product would have two separate lists of ingredients, one for Austria and one for Germany. The same may now happen with Ireland and the UK, and perhaps the term "alcohol-free" is already being used differently. See https://www.ibec.ie/drinksireland/-/media/documents/drinks-i...
I have this pet theory that alcohol is not linear. Like, 5% beer get you way more drunk than the same amount of alcohol in 4.4% beer.
If you're drinking 30-50 units of water for every unit of alcohol, all that alcohol is going to be very diluted and have little effect on your BAC. There's probably a threshold beyond which you'll just piss it all out before the your BAC ever reaches a meaningful number.
Meanwhile, your liver can remove about 10g/12ml of alcohol per hour. In order for you to reach a meaningful BAC, you will need to absorb significantly more than that.
For example, drinking 1 liter of 1% alcohol solution per hour will not result in any significant BAC, because you can remove alcohol from your bloodstream faster than alcohol enters your bloodstream. You've got a well-optimized queue there.
5 liters of 1% alcohol is the same as above, just repeated 5 times. Your queue is still working fine.
1 liter of 5% alcohol, on the other hand, will dump 50ml of alcohol into your bloodstream within an hour. Now you have a backlog, and this backlog is what increases your BAC.
So dilution does matter, even if the absolute amount of alcohol is the same. You're basically diluting alcohol consumption over time.
1. Drank a gallon of liquid (could have been water or sports drink, I don't remember) on that ~3 hour ride.
2. Didn't pee until I got home -- and not much then.
3. Came home with dry clothes, despite (obviously) sweating something like a gallon of liquid. There was no evidence of sweat, ever -- it all evaporated.The recommended amount depends on who does the recommendation but 1.9L doesn't seem high.
https://www.efsa.europa.eu/fr/efsajournal/pub/1459
"Adequate Intakes (AI) have been defined derived from a combination of observed intakes in population groups with desirable osmolarity values of urine and desirable water volumes per energy unit consumed. The reference values for total water intake include water from drinking water, beverages of all kind, and from food moisture and only apply to conditions of moderate environmental temperature and moderate physical activity levels (PAL 1.6). [...] Available data for adults permit the definition of AIs as 2.0 L/day (P 95 3.1 L) for females and 2.5 L/day (P95 4.0 L) for males."
https://apps.who.int/iris/handle/10665/43403
"The minimum water requirement for fluid replacement for a 70kg human in a temperate zone equates to 3L per day, or 42.9mL/kg [according to the Tropical Agriculture Association]. Minimum requirements for an individual the same size but in a tropical zone equates to 4.1 to 6L/day"
"Age and gender specific Adequate Intakes (AI) for water were established in 2004 by the [United States] Food and Nutrition Board (5). The Dietary Reference Intakes (DRI) for water are [for ages 19 and older] Men 3.7 L/day Women 2.7 L/day"
One stop every 2 hours to chuck 500ml of beer (Bia Hanoi, pretty nice light blond), so about 4 stops a day. It worked fine ! Pee was ok color, enough tipsy to keep my sense but numb the pain of cycling. My clothes had aureola of salt and urea.
I also find the amount questionable, as I suspect that our modern expectations of what that means and the details of what they meant when they recorded personal consumption means there's something lost in translation here.
Even when I was outside scouting crops 10-12 hours a day on foot in southwest kansas with peak 110F temps, I'd still not need to drink more than 4 liters of water a day. I could push it up another liter, but it wasn't needed and could actually be harmful if one overhydrates. And that's the extreme of the year, way more what I'd reach for most of the year.
Whereas the daily motto of the fuckers was apparently "I am a machine that turns beer into piss"
Which had me thinking of various pecuniary benefits armies pass and why. Salt -> salary is well documented, on the opposite side slightly less so but still somewhat known was for conquering armies to compensate farmers for essentially pillage as the monetary compensation can't buy much grain nor meat when the army's eaten the village's as well as that of surrounding villages. It also wasn't unusual for state coffers to run dry also, delaying soldiers' salaries, plus graft - several banks still around were founded on the basis of lending to a liquidity starved crown, a modern placation and guarantee of support in the classical baronesque sense perhaps.
And I became curious about all the other money-like tokens, like these beer rations, backed by the promise of a commodity, that floated around in those time, and in ours today. Meandering thoughts, the best kind.
Is it? At least for Roman soldiers there is no evidence at all that was the case. It just seems to be a myth originating in 18-19th centuries (like a lot of things in popular history).
It would only make sense if it was given to be used a store of value, but they had perfectly good coins to pay salaries with.
The Roman Empire towards its end in the west had suffered from a lot of inflation, so coinage was either too expensive for everyday use (i.e. gold-coins, each of which would be a year's salary for a soldier), or worthless (basically just lumps of base-metal).
I think at a certain point taxes were required to be paid in goods rather than coin which really does show that your currency is worthless (when even the state refuses to accept it!)
Paying out salaries in cash (well, coins) so soldiers can buy trade goods like salt certainly makes more sense than handing them sacks of NaCl.
It’s not unlikely that the connection between these were was already merely etymological by that time and made barely any more sense to the Romans as it does to us.
https://kiwihellenist.blogspot.com/2017/01/salt-and-salary.h...
tl;dr: There is a genuine linguistic connection between "salt" and "salary", but there is no evidence soldiers were ever paid in salt, or given an allowance specifically for buying salt. Possibly "salary" meant "money for salt" with "salt" used metonymically to mean any trade goods, similar to how "fish" was used in Ancient Greek, but even this is pure speculation.
It is somewhat documented, well documented perhaps.
Correctly documented?
I never finished the recent popular book 'Salt'. After a few chapters it became tedious, repetitive, plus the book consistently omitted tying text to sources. A frustrating read.
As I didn't in fact tie Salt to Roman soldiers' salaries, that was your reading, simply salt -> salary, I'm curious what references you could provide for different etymology? I'm genuinely interested, I rarely reply to replies.
Seem like a reasonable analysis:
https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/jfkkmk/when_...
Like a lot of historical things, there's a certain amount of guesswork involved, but it hangs together pretty well. It's unlikely that we'll find the Noah Webster of 100 BC who puts it down on a clay tablet.
"As such, it remains unknown whether Washington personally used any teeth purchased from slaves or others"
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/George_Washington%27s_teeth
So the usual expectation is indeed, if you share uncommon facts, you share the link to those facts, so others can judge more easily, if your facts are facts at all.
> Records at Mount Vernon show that Washington bought teeth from slaves
is what I said, had slaves and took their teeth, except that maybe he didn’t put the extracted teeth into his own mouth and used the slave teeth for some other purpose or a different person’s dentures, you’re correct on that and I thank you for sharing that detail.
> Wine is taken to be 0.12 alcohol, the same number is used in modern estimates of alcohol consumption. The amount of alcohol consumed by drinking historical beer brews is between 0.62 to 0.107, the % of alcohol in “small beer” is taken to be around 0.05 and the % in “strong beer” is taken to be around 0.135,
How did they brew such small beers? Nowadays the non-alcoholic beers (basically 0.5%) are mostly made by removing alcohol after brewing, which greatly affects the taste. I think it's a highly desirable skill to be able to brew good small beers. (Or maybe those beers were just not very good by today's standards.)
There's much less foam in low alcohol beers, so it's not just the alcohol content (unless that affect it directly in some way I don't know about).
But I am more of a Pilsener guy, and there are a few good alcohol free Pils which I am convinced would taste like the "real deal" with the added taste of alcohol.
The thing that makes beer foam stay there is the protein content. Yeast contributes some, but it's also in the grain. The foam should be less different if you compared something filtered like Heineken and Heineken 0.0.
this is not a good expectation. Yeast will consume all available sugar till the alcohol %age gets too high for them (depends on the yeast but even the hardiest cultured strains poop out at around 16%. But they can only consume what sugar is in there, so if you ferment starting with something with little sugar, it will not arrive at a high alcohol level.
Our ancestors did not have access to lots of sugar, even their fruits (therefore juices) were less sweet.
to your point about insanely sweet starter, wine grapes are also insanely sweet, so sweet we don't want to eat them. Table grapes like you buy at the grocery, sweet as they are, are much less sweet than wine grapes. So, starting from the ultra sweet grapejuice, average wine gets to 12% alcohol.
I think it depends on the style. For hoppy ales Athletic Brewing in the US makes really good beers, you can hardly tell there is no alcohol. As far as I heard they don't really remove alcohol, but I don't know how they brew it. (Might be a secret process.)
Regarding German beers, this is also what I find near me now, and they are all decent, but you can definitely tell they don't have alcohol.
- Toast 300g sliced [rye] bread to near burning
- Boil 3 liters of water, turn off, insert/soak bread
- Let sit covered for 6 hours
- Add 150g sugar, 6g instant yeast
- Let sit covered for 18 hours
- Remove bread, strain out extra liquid from it. Birds love it, once it dries out.
- Bottle up the liquid (leave headspace for gassing), and occasionally burp it.
- Wait. Longer bottling period = smoother, less carbonated, more alcohol, less sweet. ~12 hours, but this is very subjective.
- Chill + drink. Take the lid off very carefully, aim away from eyes.
In Finland, a home-made small beer (kotikalja) remains a popular drink in the countryside. The alcohol content is around 1%. It’s a sweet brown mush that you can make in one day at home using rye malt sold in every grocery store. Here’s a video:
There's a Tibetan/Bhutanese/north Indian barley version of this too, known as chhang.
It's not up to modern standards for "alcohol free" beecs, but it works if you're just aiming to hydrate while avoiding pathogens in your water supply.
Americans should probably date "stopping being drunk all the time" to Prohibition; the overwhelming national support for it, especially from newly enfranchised women(+), gives an idea as to how big a problem it was.
(+) As a non-American, I had to check this, and Prohibition very slightly pre-dates universal votes for women although both were in 1920 and it may be possible that the franchise differed by state? It's certainly true that women temperance campaigners were very important, given the role of alcohol in domestic violence and budgeting.
edit: I should also note tolerance to alcohol is a warning that much greater problems are imminent. It is a red flag.
https://www.bbc.co.uk/programmes/m0013zl8
ps. there's also some fascinating speculation at the end about connections between the temperance movement and early movements for women's rights and how that played out very differently on each side of the Atlantic.
"Take his entry for the night of 16 October 1783. Boswell records that he and six friends consumed 11 bottles of claret, two of other wines, two of Madeira, three of port, and one of rum. The next night, they polished off 11 bottles of claret, three of other wines, three of port and three of rum."
https://www.theguardian.com/travel/2004/dec/19/unitedkingdom...
[1] usually mixed with coffee several times during the day, and very often a shot glass in the evening
[2] I've never seen a sober postman when I visited my grand parents as a kid in the 80's and 90's. Back in the days they weren't timed and would be invited for a coffee at every single farm they visited to talk about the news of the day. He really served as a local and vocal newspaper for all of them. The coffee itself wasn't strong in cafeine, but was almost always served with "la goutte", a small but significant amount of spirit.
The gnole as you speak is more something that became popular amongst the Poilu during the first world war and after, I'm not sure if there was loads of people drinking it in the past but it feels like the spirits became more popular by the end of the 20th centuary.
I would say in the case of cider you have to drink an awful lot to feel intoxicated, you definitely suffer from diarrea before you feel the alcohol.
I still miss the quality homemade one when far away from the Balkans.
[1] https://www.jergovic.com/ajfelov-most/pater-franz-pfaner-o-v...
there was a book or paper out like 25 years ago that speculated that as the Age of Enlightenment coincided with the start of European tea and coffee drinking, the general uptick in the usage of stimulants instead of alcohol must have contributed to the intellectual flowering through to the Renaissance, at least for the literate classes.
So that's when one group of people stopped being drunk all the time.
That's the difference between a sufficient condition and a necessary condition. It's likely a combination of factors were required that might not have been available in other places. But there were something akin to renaissances in other places before Europe, but changing environments/factors limited their impact or spread, or even outright ended them.
I always find the argument "but why didn't this happen elsewhere" bizarre, when ... it usually has happened elsewhere. Ignorance isn't a great argument. Like, other places often had sewers and other sanitation long before Europe, which implies that alcohol could have been a limiting factor for Europe while not being a limiting factor elsewhere.
...I think that says more about you than me.
Also, industrialization saw the rise of the skilled workforce. People started earning more the more they could use their brain. It makes sense that they wouldn't want to numb it as much as they did before.
There was a switchboard with buttons for emergency breaks (e.g.toilet break). If you used it the machine stopped, a yellow light flashed and the foreman shouted at you.
I don't write this to complain, actually for me doing this for a couple of weeks during summer recess was quite fun. After this experience I also totally see how you just cannot do a job like that for 40+ years without alcohol.
At that factory drinking previously had been common among workers. They banned alcohol during weekdays after one worker fell into a spinning milling machine. But even after that those workers who came in on Saturdays were allowed to consume a limited quantity of beer.
Many didn't cope well with this and in the building I was working they had thrown out the contents of the first aid boxes to hide the beer bottles there.
Beer works well against acute dehydration.
Not neccessarily. The whole Luddite revolution/movement was trying to fight industrialization _because_ it required less skills, and reduced workers' wages. For example, before the automatic looms were introduced, cloth was produced by hand, by people of significant dexterity and skill. After automation, it was mainly produced by machines which needed only very basic (and low paid) human input here and there.
I'm not so sure. Before industrialization, most jobs were skilled. For one, most people were farmers, and it required a lifetime of knowledge (usually passed on from previous generations). Whereas today, lots (most?) of people are employed in jobs which don't require much training. In factory work jobs, it's enough that you are literate and can do basic arithmetic. In many office jobs and service jobs, it's that plus possibly some basic computer skills. The actual training often takes one day and teaches you everything you need to know to perform the job well.
Pretty soon the demand (and pay) for skilled craftsmen rocketed back up because the newly affluent workers could now afford to buy more items and some of those were not yet mass-producable.
That’s the exact opposite of reality. They worked 12-16 hour shifts for unlivable wages, crammed several families per room, and lived without any of the infrastructure that makes high densities livable like modern sewer systems. It was the age of cholera and truly awful living conditions.
People didn’t move into the cities because it was better for them but because industrialization forced them to. Peasants didn’t start asking for worker’s rights until the industrial revolution because it was so much worse than working conditions in subsistence farming.
Weren't inclosure acts a big reason why people moved to the cities, at least in England?
So you had industrialists setting up factories needing cheap labour to run the machines, and a mass exodus of the countryside population to the cities desperate for work. Hello Dickens.
This is how you get an explosion in petty crime, disease, poverty, hulks, and eventually, transportation of the troublesome poor to Australia.
The industrial revolution was so destabilising to society that colonialism was a very convenient solution. Just go somewhere else, shoot the natives who resist, and the poors can have that land.
In some physical jobs like the construction business, workers used to rely on alcohol to make through the work day until very recently. In some countries they might even still do so.
I can confirm from my own experience building a house and doing heavy lifting on the construction site, that after 10 hours of taxing work, an evening beer works wonders to relax your strained muscles and regain some feeling of comfort.
It's no surprise to me, that the reduction in alcohol consumption coincides with a switch from more hard physical labor, to more sitting jobs.
I think it's a bit like how I crave ice cold Coke when I'm thirsty on a hot summer day but then when I just drink tap water that craving reduces significantly. Therefore I know that my body really needed water but my brain translated in into a craving for Coke. There might be some similar learned behaviours between hard labourers and beer.
The catch is that without germ theory, people mostly did this process to water which was obviously contaminated. If water looked clean and tasted clean, why purify it? Even people who should know germ theory still make this mistake—people who go backpacking will take water from a clear stream and drink it, unaware that there is a beaver dam upstream and giardia in the water.
In many ways it filled (and still does, as does coffee) many of the same roles as alcohol. Certainly not the partying aspect, but as a beverage to have with food, relax or socialise with. Alcohol was consumed a lot more often in those more mundane contexts before.
Now my Fridays are filled with the same monotony as the rest of the work week.
You need to make social engagements during the day with friends. Otherwise it's lonely and isolating. as a nice plus, seeing your actual friends is much nicer than seeing your workplace "friends" who'd likely sell you out for half a dollar.
Go grab lunch at a pub, coffee, do some exercise or whatever.
I soon stopped drinking at lunch though, never do it anymore, never got much work done in the afternoon and made me a bit too aggressive..
I’m generalising but can imagine that, for a woman, dealing with a group of pissed city boys feels much more uncomfortable than your brush ins with hen do’s.
This is all ignoring the fact that this thread is around drinking during work hours. So I don’t think the comparison to hen do’s is fair in the first place.
What everybody who does not feel well under these conditions should never the less consider is: Connections are formed during these events and collective rule breaking is an effective bonding mechanism. Further more, getting intoxicated together is a convenient way to make statements and have a degree of deniability afterwards.
This is the way
So I find it reasonable to believe that people used to be for most centuries consuming alcohol but moderately affected. As in, they would not have appeared heavily intoxicated. Of course it would have affected their health and increased risk to become an alcohol addict, but then, it seems alcohol was actually not so cheap until cheap liquor from grains and potatoes became available.
Beer used to be a seasonal drink due to lack of cooling, or without engineered yeasts it’s alcohol content low.
The article is no longer available, but here’s a summary https://www.dailymail.co.uk/sciencetech/article-3209119/Why-... and here’s a follow-up of sorts https://draftmag.com/how-many-beers-to-get-drunk/
We both noted how we used to drink a lot more, meaning we're just as cool and fashionable as The Kids These Days, who are according to several news reports drinking less than college kids were a decade or so ago.
A few days later, he said he figured it out: for each of the ~3-4% ABV beers I drink, he's drinking a ~7-8% IPA. Him "catching up" (round for round/pint for pint) was consuming twice the alcohol as I was. I said I'd noticed that myself, when moving to a major city where most beers were $8 IPAs - having a couple beers at lunch would make me tired, if not drunk, and I'd need a cup of coffee on the way back to get going again.
I'm too lazy to do The Math, but I can't help but wonder how the "Kids These Days Drink Less Alcohol" charts line up with the "Kids These Days Seem To Prefer IPAs" chart. (It seems ABV has little to do with the historical trend presented here, though)
> Wine is taken to be 0.12 alcohol, the same number is used in modern estimates of alcohol consumption. The amount of alcohol consumed by drinking historical beer brews is between 0.62 to 0.107, the % of alcohol in “small beer” is taken to be around 0.05 and the % in “strong beer” is taken to be around 0.135, the relative consumption of small and strong beer is depended on whether we use the numbers from “Vandelint 1734” or the estimates in the studies mentioned in table 2.1 in “Alcohol, Sex, and Gender in Late Medieval and Early Modern Europe”
That said, they're also much more casual about consuming cannabis since it's been legal their whole adult lives, which often leads to them drinking less when they go out.
The constantly changing units of consumption, historical timing, changes between daily and annual rates of consumption and similar made it difficult to understand exactly the point that was being made.
The author dug up a lot of data and put it together, but didn't going the extra step of unifying things in a way that's easy to understand.
I kept having to convert the units they were using to units I could understand, and since those units weren't constant, it's difficult to get an overall impression.
But, a few examples I did convert to amounts of drinking I understand:
* In Florence in 1455, someone (IDK if this is an average, an individual, a certain class of people or what?) drank 250L of wine in a year. That's about .9 modern size bottles of wine per day. A good amount, but I expect if you were practiced at it and drank it fairly evenly throughout the day, you certainly wouldn't appear drunk.
* In the medieval city of Ghent, the apparent average per person annual consumption was ~40-liters wine and ~1300-liters beer. That works out to basically 7.5 pints (16oz, or the size of one of the tall cans of that craft beer often comes in in the US) of beer every day, and a quite small glass of wine. Depending on how strong the beer was (doesn't specify if this was small ~5% or strong ~12% beer), I expect even a practiced drinker would be quite tipsy after close to 8 pints and a touch of wine every day.
* Sailors got a ration of 8 pints of strong (13% ABV) beer a day, which would have me absolutely knocked off my feet. 3 pints of what I think of as strong beer (~6-8%) in any kind of close succession and I'm definitely feeling tipsy, and shouldn't be let anywhere near something so complex as rigging. Though, after reading a few books on naval life aboard 16th century British sailing ships, perhaps being totally out of it for as much of the journey as possible would be a solid survival tactic.
* The "historical average" (IDK what period of history, or how average) beer consumption was around 380 liters per person per year. That's just over 2.2 pints per person per day. A long way from "being drunk all the time", even if it was higher ABV strong beer (and it certainly wasn't all high ABV).
Certainly, people seemed to have drunk much more in the past than they do today, but it's hard to make clear conclusions when the units are all over the place.
That’s mostly a myth.
> as the river was the source of clean water
Also mostly a myth. e.g. they weren’t drinking water from the Thames in medieval London for instance but from the Tyburn river. The case in most cities was that you had stream and springs which were legally protected and you poured your waste downstream into some major river. Obviously shit happened and water sources got polluted from time to time with terrible consequences but they still drank water all the time.
16+ hour days of hard, hot, hypervigilant, dangerous work with a chunk nearly always unpaid; no health insurance; socially isolated from everyone you don't work with, and they also probably have unhealthy lifestyles... I imagine our reasons weren't much different than others throughout history. Hard to make healthy life choices in that life.
But still - by the article's definition, 8 strong pints would be the equivalent of 16 16oz IPAs in a day. I'm sure there are heavy drinkers that could do it and hide it pretty well, but I think your average person would be pretty flat.
I expect I'd be asleep in the corner if not passed out.
iirc "beer" as it was back then was more like 0.5% ABV
So obviously, sailors during the age of sail couldn't have 13% ABV beer. They had rum though, so maybe the drinks they had were mixed with rum to reach 13%.
If sailors were issue "strong beer", I would guess it is like today's regular beer, maybe in the order of 5-6%. As opposed to "small beer", that was maybe 1-2%. Sometimes it was less than 1%, not even enough to qualify as an alcoholic drink in many countries today.
As for wine, it also tended to be weaker than modern wine, most likely under 10%, and it was often watered down.
The reason beer and wine are so consistently strong today is that we have good knowledge of the fermentation process and we are able to precisely control all the variables. They didn't even know what kind of yeast that had back in the days, they mostly used what was floating in the air where they were. Now we have lab grown yeasts, selectively bred for maximum performance.
A better contemporary comparison might be be something like kombucha.
The problem? The fucking Pantheon in Rome. It existed, and at that time built over a thousand years prior. It demonstrated that it was possible to build domes and that the technology had been lost to humanity. Artists and architects worth their salt all spent time in Rome learning architecture and design from the ancient ruins, by then nearly a thousand years old.
Brunelleschi, and his best friend Donatello, were no different, having visit Rome sometime in the early 1400s to study. Rome at the time was a decrepit, dangerous, insecure, place to go. However, based on what he learned, Brunalleschi developed concepts of architecture, light, balance, and other ideas, which garnered him commissions back in Florence. Based on his work and excellent delivery, the Medici (THE Medici family) hired him to build various things including the Basilica of San Lorenzo in Florence. Which, if you've been there, feels like a frustrated first draft of the Duomo. The Basilica of Santo Spirito is the second draft.
Along the way he started working with vaults, then domes (very important!)
There was a competition, Brunalleschi's friend, Donatello, provided an absolutely incredible scaled demo of Brunalleschi's concept, and he won the competition against rival Ghiberti.
Once he won the commission, he set to work figuring out how to actually do it at scale. The "dome within a dome" architectural idea he inherited from prior work (technological debt!), but set out to create several new management and construction innovations which included:
- a maturing of the "dome within a dome" concept
- new hoisting machines
- new designs which eliminated legacy concepts such as flying buttresses and strengthened traditional bricklaying concepts
- entirely new management concepts:
1. Workers stay up in the construction site, going up and down hundreds of stairs was a waste of time (e.g. context shifting).
2. Resources, such as food and wine were to be brought to the workers in-place to save time and improve productivity.
3. The wine was to be diluted with water, similar to the quality of wine brought to pregnant women, this prevented drunkenness, as well as water-borne illnesses, which made the workers more productive.
The dome, the lantern on top, and the four surround mini-dome took from 1420-1445 (with the dome completed in 1436). Remember, this was to build something had been lost, science fiction, technology of the ancients, merely a hundred years prior.
Lessons for today:
1. Study what's come before
2. Honor your predecessors, but invent anyway
3. Focus on worker productivity, don't waste their time with context switching and perks that provide "nutrition-free" benefits.
Other observations:
1. Humans had identified alcohol as both a way to make water safer to drink, and a problem for pregnant women. Fetal alcohol syndrome had been observed and a reduced intake of alcohol had been identified as a way to reduce the problem.
2. It was possible to negotiate worker relations in such a way that they didn't hate, offered them benefits, and improved productivity.
3. Everybody competes, killer demos and prior work win future work.
How? There isn’t enough alcohol in wine to kill much bacteria, especially if you mix it with water.
According to the table 3.10 [0], leisure time was greater on Monday than on Sunday.
Do I understand it correctly? Monday was the previous Sunday in Christian societies?
[0] https://substack-post-media.s3.amazonaws.com/public/images/9...
Not sure exactly, but I think Sunday was always Sunday. It's Saturday that changed.
> The amount of alcohol consumed by drinking historical beer brews is between 0.62 to 0.107, the % of alcohol
I think you meant “0.062” not “0.62” am I wrong ?
Cheers for the informative article :)
When did people have ever been drunk all the time?
People drank more because there was a lot less alcohol in the alcoholic beverages on average, but it was some people drinking a lot more (really, an awful lot more), not the average person drinking more than today.
A person drinking a bottle of whisky a day would count as 22 drinks, the average today is around 1 drink per person per day, so that one person alone would count as 22 people.
You don't see many people drinking that amount of alcohol today, but it wasn't uncommon in certain jobs in the recent past.
Beers were similar to fermented milk they drink in Mongolia[1], wine had a similar alcohol content of today only for upper classes products, the average had higher alcohol content to preserve it better or it would spoil and taste like vinegar, but it was mostly drank mixed with herbs, honey and diluted with water (vinification was much different back then, the final product often reminded a syrup more than a liquid).
For a lot of time in many places alcoholic beverages were also banned by religions on public health grounds.
But the most important reason is that the "industry" of beverages (soda, juice, energy drinks, etc), advertising and marketing had not been invented yet.
And probably the amount of stimulants and sugar we get from these "non-alcoholic " beverages are more damaging to our health than alcohol alone.
For optimal health, the World Health Organization (WHO) recommend consuming no more than 6 tsp of added sugar daily. By drinking just one serving of cola a day, a person will easily exceed this amount. A 2015 study attributed 184,000 global deaths each year to the consumption of sugary drinks.
this is sugary drinks alone, notice that when you look at the stats for alcohol related deaths, they also include incidents or accidents where someone had some alcohol (> 0) in their system, the same stats are not kept for sugar/caffeine/stimulants in general.
There is plenty of reason to believe these beers were not <1% alcohol as is often described. A 16th century English soldier receiving 7-8 pints a day of 2-5.5% beer is between 2.25 fl oz and 7 fl oz of pure alcohol - so between 4 - 11.5 “standard drinks” a day, assuming that was their only consumption.
20% of the people consume 80% of the alcohol.
3 unfiltered IPAs? I’m not getting up from bed the next day.
Last week I drank 3 liters of beers and was pretty fine. It's when I went for the next liter and vodka when I... were fine, honestly. Not great, sure, and any sport activity was out of question. The biggest problem was what I came home at 5 AM which of course messed up my schedule again.
Although I am not a heavy drinker (mostly only drink alcohol on weekends), I am fine with 3-4 6.5% beers in a day, or similar consumption of alcohol in wine, especially if not binge drinked but over the course of a day mixed with meals. Even the nights I get totally drunk I very rarely feel sick the next day. The reason: even when I drink alcohol I also drink a lot of water. Usually the next day's sickness is due to dehydratation of the brain. If you keep hydrated (with water!) on top of your alcohol consumption even if you are drunk you won't suffer from it the next day.
Having said that, not feeling sick the next day doesn't mean you don't do any damages to your body and your brain.
Different beers affect me differently, sometimes I would feel bad next day from just 2 beers. While it does depend a lot if I was active (dancing) and how much water I took on alongside the beer, the brand itself makes a huge difference. If you experiment a bit you might find that some beers are actually bad. Not sure where this comes from, trace amounts of methanol? Some other contaminants? Not sure but it does make a difference.
Right now my fav beer is Hoegaarden for example :-D
I want to see a beer consumption graph by state/county of Austria. Wanted to chime in as my experience is so different from yours.
And since it's mind and behaviour-altering, I often wonder if human minds had to evolve to compensate for constant drunkenness. Are we all more obsessive and intelligent to make up for constant drunkenness making us sloppy and dumb?
Evolution is slow (unless it's a huge bottleneck event).
As for humans, current scientific consensus is that 5000 years ago virtually no human adult could digest milk, and now lactose tolerance is prevalent in like 95% of European-descended people.
And none of the above would appear in a visual inspection of a skeleton.
I figure the kind of neurological and digestive adaptations to being perma-buzzed might be similar.
There is a word for 0.62 alcohol beer: whiskey.
https://twitter.com/historyinmemes/status/166851023189728870...
"You can't drink when you want to, you have to wear a seatbelt. Pretty soon we'll be a Communist country".
Does that echo, or what?
Although it doesn't specify weight or volume, but the 5% alcohol beer seems to be equivalent of the "small beer".
There are also the "pure alcohol" charts in the table that I think try and account for it.
Also there's the comment about beer for sailors in the 10-15% range.
So taken together it seems modern people are indeed an awful lot less drunk than they were in the middle ages.
If you’re referring to the “0.05” figure i think that is just out of a unit of 1. IOW multiply by 100 to get %. They use % in other parts of the post.
Beers and Ales used hops and boiled water.
Drinking water near large population centres were not boiled or treated.
People that mostly drank wines, beers, and ales likely suffered fewer bouts of dysentry and worse.
Here’s a competing theory—people liked beer, and drank a lot of it. If we want to get past armchair history, we need something more than a patchwork of unfounded speculation. We want something that would lead us to believe that one explanation was better than the other, or perhaps both are good, or neither.
There's no need to be a tosser (see HN guidelines), it's an argument that comes straight out of Medieaval recipe books for make beers and ales, straight from the time of the great miasma, and from the mouths of many UK historians.
It’s frustrating, because I’ve been told off for asking for evidence, even though I didn’t ask for evidence.
Every time I try get an answer, all the resources I find contradict the claims here. Water was the most common drink. Communities were built around wells or other water sources. The Romans built massive systems of aqueducts so they could have more water. I did a Google search and found a page full of results directly contradicting the claim that people drank beer because it was cleaner.
Also medieval authorities to great effort to keep water sources unpolluted with outright draconian punishments for those who did that. Of course they didn’t always succeed.. but still.
The point of medieval beer and ale making exercises was to make beer and ale, (which required boiling water as part of the common recipes of the day).. which very likely created a notable difference between those drinking mostly large amounts of low alcohol beer | ale made from boiled water compared to those that mostly drank unboiled liquids.
> which very likely created a notable difference between those drinking
Well I suppose they were somewhat more drunk most of the time and also more well off since they could afford it?
Also again, you can make assumptions but I’m not aware that there is substantial evidence that this was the case.
5% ABV does not kill much. You’d need distilled spirits for that.
While silver and other noble metals have antimicrobial properties, the percentage of alcohol in altar wine is way too low to make a difference.
When transubstantiated from wine to blood, it retains the accidents of wine, and those accidents will infect you with a disease just as any other.
That's the miracle of the Eucharist; our feeble senses can't distinguish it, nor could a microscope or science lab point out which is Eucharist, and which is ordinary wine.
Almost all Western churches suspended distribution under the species of wine, even though the odds were very, very low.
The Eastern Orthodox couldn't do this, however, and it led to several Greek bishops insisting that no disease could come from this Holiest of Mysteries, and that it is uniquely special and don't worry about COVID-19.
A school of though existed at the time that believed that bathing was dangerous and a time that “allowed the venomous airs to enter and destroyeth the lively spirits in man and enfeebleth the body” (Thurley, Pg. 171).
Somewhat made up for by people having less body mass, though.
https://www.nature.com/scitable/topicpage/yeast-fermentation...
"Most yeast strains can tolerate an alcohol concentration of 10–15% before being killed. This is why the percentage of alcohol in wines and beers is typically in this concentration range."
I assume temperature and other factors play a role in how successful you are at keeping them alive that long though.
Among other things:
> The beer in these accounts was graded with the nomenclature typical of the period. Historians generally identify three main strengths of beer in accounts and brewing instructions: ‘strong beer’, perhaps with a particular seasonal association like ‘October’ or ‘March’; ‘ordinary’ or ‘household’ beer; and ‘small’ beer. Within these categories, there was variation in quality and strength, and a tendency for types to overlap. Names also varied over time. While such issues make estimating the relative amounts of each type produced difficult, there are indications that ordinary beer was the most consumed overall, particularly by the working classes. This is confirmed by the Irish accounts. At Dublin Castle, household production focused on two kinds, strong and ordinary, of which far more was drunk of the latter. In the yearly account for 1574, only 13 per cent of beer consumed was strong. Other years showed similar values.
Though I will say that the current trend with Double IPAs and Hazy IPAs where they all now start at 7% and go up to 10% is definitely outside of the historical norm.
But it gets weirder the more you look at it, and especially once you get into the 1700s. There is a proliferation of spirits drinking in the Anglosphere starting then, split between Gin and Whiskey. Gin became a big thing in London, probably at something like 30% alcohol, but was sold in beer volumes. People were drinking pints of straight gin, to the point where it became a big public health crisis. And of course you get the importation and rise in popularity of whiskey distilling from Scotland to the American colonies as a means to use up excess wheat and corn in a shelf stable way. From the 1700s until prohibition I get the impression that public drunkenness was FAR more common in the US and (to a lesser degree) the UK than it is now.
Walking into any of those craft brew places where I live I'll be lucky to find 5% almost everything is some crazy 6.5% and up now.
And some strong wines can be sweet, because the grapes had so much sugar that the yeast couldn't ferment it all.
Sorry. Couldn’t resist. I’ll show myself out.
All of human history? Seems excessively generous tbh.
> Fascinates me to see these two extremes in behavior.
I too would need a half bottle of port to write about freedom and liberty while my slaves built me a countryside mansion.
Also they were mad at the British for not allowing them to steal Native American land in a disorganized way. You had to go the Crown which would negotiate with the tribe on your behalf etc. Washington (especially) of course had other ideas..
- 1706: Slaves entering England are freed
- 1772: no slaves can be removed from England,remaining slaves emanzipated
- 1779: all slaves fleeing from tha US are freed, regardless of their willingness to fight for the crown
So, yes, the crown had legal precendent and plans to abolish slavery as far back as the early 18th century.
Source:
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Timeline_of_abolition_of_sla...
The British Crown and the upper classes had no issue at all with African Anerican and Indian slavery in the colonies and were happy to profit from it.
Abolitionism was a fringe view at the time.
Sure, England had a ruling that slavery was illegal in England... but there was no push to interdict slavery elsewhere in the empire (not even Scotland and Ireland, IIRC), especially the colonies. And do recall that some individual Caribbean islands had more slaves than all of British North America.
That's in fact why the British Caribbean didn't revolt during the American Revolution: they were like "what, revolt and risk dealing with a slave revolt without backup from the British Army?"
The comment.
e.g. Washington and his soldiers were promised quite a bit of land in Ohio(?) as a reward for helping fight the french. All of that land ended up being an Indian reserve the Crown decided to establish instead.
> > To be fair they didn’t quite manage to complete it
They had to wait till independence to “complete it”.
When trying to learn more about it I found a Snopes article at https://www.snopes.com/fact-check/the-price-they-paid/ discussing a letter going around titled "The Price They Paid" making the claim "Five [of the 56] signers were captured by the British as traitors and tortured before they died."
Snopes comments that while five of the signers were indeed captured, four appear to have been treated as normal prisoners of war after being captured in battle ("they were not tortured, nor is there evidence that they were treated more harshly than other wartime prisoners who were not also signatories to the Declaration") and the fifth - singled out for signing - was sent to prison.
Wikipedia comments that the fifth, Richard Stockton, was "intentionally starved and subjected to freezing cold weather. After nearly five weeks of brutal treatment, Stockton was released on parole with his health ruined." quoting a 1823 biography.
But was that torture? Reading the biography, at https://archive.org/details/biographyofsign03sand/page/100/m... , the issue appears to be that rich Mr. Stockton, used to living the high life, has been placed in the commoner jail rather than the comfy jail for rich people:
> On his removal to New York, he was ignominiously consigned to the common prison, and without the least regard for his rank, age, and delicate health, for some time treated with unusual severity.
As Congress described it, "that he hath been ignominiously thrown into a common gaol, and there detained".
And the common jail had horrible conditions. Quoting https://www.americanwars.org/american-prisoners-revolution/p... :
> "The New Jail was made a Provost Prison, and here officers and men of note were confined. At one time they were so crowded into this building, that when they lay down upon the floor to sleep all in the row were obliged to turn over at the same time at the call, 'Turn over! Left! Right!'
> "The sufferings of these brave men were largely due to the criminal indifference of Loring, Sproat, Lennox, and other Commissaries of the prisoners.
> "Many of the captives were hanged in the gloom of night without trial and without a semblance of justice.
It doesn't seem like any of the founders were tortured during the war.
Appalling and deplorable, yes. But you said they were tortured.
If appalling conditions = torture, then nearly all of the captured revolutionary troops were tortured, yes?
As well as the captured British POWs held by the Americans?
Which would mean both the US and Britain were systemically and institutionally engaged in wholesale torture of white British subjects (or at least people perceived to be British).
Which would seem to diminish the severity of the term "torture".
Also, Stockton wasn't a POW.
The other four - who were POWs - had much better conditions.
For example, three were held in St. Augustine under parole, with food, a quarter pint of rum daily, and considerable freedom of movement about the town.
This is a far cry from being tortured.
> Was that torture?
Yes, that's quite clearly torture.
He was assigned to the commoner prison, not tortured. That's why he was cold and hungry.
If it was torture, why Congress was so interested in the plight of this one man - enough to send General Washington to investigate the report - and not interested in the plight of everyone else in the prison in the same condition?
Why is it okay to torture common people, but not rich "honorable" people?
It's not. That was his point.
The other 4 Declaration signers who were detained by the British were all rich men of high station - were given good treatment and considerable freedom under parole not given to normal prisoners or POWs. They certainly weren't tortured in any sense of the word.
The description in the biography seems to be that because Richard Stockton was also a rich man of high station, he should have received similar treatment, but he was instead treated like a commoner, and his suffering was all the greater because he was used to the good life.
In the biography were are supposed to sympathize with Stockton because of course rich people deserve to be treated better than plebes. That's the natural order of things. A bizjet traveler should never be forced to fly tourist class.
Congress's interest in the case seems to be much more an apprehension that Stockton was being treated like a common prisoner than a concern that commoners are being horribly mistreated. They wanted Stockton treated like a POW, covered under different laws than a prisoner.
If what was going on can be called torture, Congress don't seem to care. My question is, why not?
"intentionally" implies intention somehow.
Wikipedia's source for "intentionally starved" is https://archive.org/details/biographyofsign03sand/page/102/m... :
> He was not only deprived of the comforts, but the necessaries, of life, having been left more than twenty-four hours without food, and afterward afforded a very coarse and limited supply. The inhuman treatment which he received, so repugnant to the principles of civilized warfare, and so intolerable to an individual who had been accustomed to all the comforts and delicacies of life, depressed his spirits and seriously affected his health.
Can you tell me if that was "intentionally starved" or "intentionally forced to eat the same rations as commoners"? Was it really a starvation diet, or was it food that a rich man wasn't used to eating and found unpalatable?
You may well be right. By all accounts the Provost Prison was a horrible place, cruelly run by Provost Marshal Cunningham. At https://www.gutenberg.org/files/7829/7829-h/7829-h.htm#link2... we can read how a pamphleteer describe him as a torturer:
“His hatred of the Americans found vent in torture by searing irons and secret scourges to those who fell under the ban of his displeasure. The prisoners were crowded together so closely that many fell ill from partial asphyxiation, and starved to death for want of the food which he sold to enrich himself.”
But even if you are right, at https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=36875273 I point out the other four imprisoned signatories to the Declaration of Independence were not treated like this.
They certainly were not tortured.
The source your quoting also calls it "inhuman" and "repugnant to the principles of civilized warfare."
It's got nothing to do with how rich he was, only the fact that he was mistreated as a prisoner.
> And what is more, by a custom which equally displays the honour and humanity of the Europeans, an officer, taken prisoner in war, is released on his parole, and enjoys the comfort of passing the time of his captivity in his own country, in the midst of his family ; and the party who have thus released him rest as perfectly sure of him as if they had him confined in irons.
Technically speaking, I guess they don't have to be rich to be an officer, but all the ones I mentioned were rich.
As best as I can tell, Stockton is the only one who might fit that description, and the cited support for Wikipedia"s "five weeks of brutal treatment" doesn't help me understand how that specifically was torture, unless all "brutal treatment" is considered a form of torture.
He lost his wealth, including his library and animals. That's surely an emotional shock that could easily lead to depression. I can understand how someone from privilege, with a lot to lose, may be more affected than a poor person with little to lose. I can also understand how that depression may make it harder to survive wretched circumstances. But I also don't want to give special dispensation to wealthy people just because they are used to a good life.
All of the resources I've found about the event trace back to the biography I've been quoting. The book "His Sacred Honor, Judge Richard Stockton" surely has more, but I can't find a copy online.
I am unable to answer your question about the book. I believe that if "civilized warfare" is a meaningful phrase in a 1770s US context then it's surely influenced by Vattel.
Should the people involved be prosecuted for torture?
To be clear, I think it is a clear violation of their 8th amendment right.
Here's a lawsuit where the jail wasn't providing enough food. https://www.timesunion.com/local/article/Lawsuit-says-jail-s... . The class action lawsuit is settled, at https://dailygazette.com/2020/07/23/montgomery-county-agrees... . The county denies any wrongdoing.
Even if you think it was torture, I wonder if the prisoners did. The complaint at https://clearinghouse-umich-production.s3.amazonaws.com/medi... says "A more abusive and inhumane environment is difficult to imagine" but does not use the word torture.
Or, from https://interrogatingjustice.org/prisons/historic-winter-sto... :
> More than 1,000 women in one medical prison endured days without heat. Temperatures inside FMC Carswell the facility dropped to 50 degrees. The prison is the only medical facility for women in the entire country, and it houses prisoners with severe health problems. To make matters worse, staff failed to properly secure water supplies, leading to a water shortage inside the jail. Ahead of the storm, correctional officers did not repair damaged heating systems or secure a generator to make sure essential medical equipment had power. Though the prison never officially lost power, prisoners struggled in the extreme temperatures.
Were they being tortured?
Or, "The Big Chill - I had never been locked up before. No one told me that prison would be so cold." https://www.themarshallproject.org/2018/11/29/the-big-chill .
Are those prisoners being tortured? Or is this part of the "pain or suffering arising only from, inherent in, or incidental to, lawful sanctions" the United Nations Convention Against Torture specifically excludes?
I found https://www.prisonlegalnews.org/news/1998/feb/15/cold-cell-v... saying "The court noted that "cold temperatures need not imminently threaten inmates' health to violate the eighth amendment. Thus, Dixon's claim that his cell was so cold he could not write a letter or do legal work, was sufficient, without more, for eighth amendment purposes."
This sounds like a cold cell can be a violation of the 8th amendment, even without involving torture or extreme health problems.
That's why I don't want to say that this short description of the events of 1700s is enough to conclude it was likely also torture.
Torture may not be the correct word, but brutal neglect certainly would.
Edward Rutledge, Arthur Middleton and Thomas Heyward Jr. were all imprisoned at the PoW camp at Fort St. Mark (aka Castillo de San Marcos), St. Augustine. Not a prison ship.
The Wikipedia article at https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Castillo_de_San_Marcos links to https://books.google.com/books?id=eCc8BQAAQBAJ&pg=PA126 which describes their captivity and that of others as:
> They lived in the unfinished statehouse and in private houses in town. Since many were paroled, most of them were given considerable freedom of movement. The prisoners' diet was salt fish, occasionally salt beef, vegetables, and potatoes, and one-quarter pint of rum daily. They were permitted to write home for money to purchase items from local vendors. At the statehouse they slept on mattresses on the floor, and stayed the better part of a year.
That is not brutal neglect and certainly not torture.
George Walton, the 5th captured signer, was captured during the Battle of Savannah in 1778. From https://archive.org/details/biographyofsign03sand/page/124/m... :
> Walton received a wound through the thigh, fell from his horse, and was taken prisoner. He was paroled until he recovered from his wound, and then transferred to Sunbury, as a prisoner of war. The high station of colonel Walton as a member of congress, and his signature to the declaration of independence, induced the British government to demand a brigadier general in exchange for him, but the term for which he was elected having expired, he was ultimately exchanged, as a lieutenant colonel, for a captain of the navy, in September, 1779.
Again, not brutal neglect, and not torture.
Just regular good old ancestor / politician worship.
And, yes, the founding fathers (...) were just like any old grandpas. They were men of state at a particular place and time. Just because it happens to be your ancestral place and time, doesn't make it anything more impressive than hundreds of other leaders in history, including near history.
The main reason they get celebrated is because they place they founded got rich, but that was due to factors other than their brilliance.
> And, yes, the founding fathers (...) were just like any old grandpas. They were men of state at a particular place and time. Just because it happens to be your ancestral place and time, doesn't make it anything more impressive than hundreds of other leaders in history, including near history.
This is the definition of edgy contrarianism. They were on the forefront of enacting a new-ish system of thought into a stable and long-lasting democratic republic, the first really liberal and representative version of such. They were exceptional men in a unique time and capitalized on that to the benefit of hundreds of millions or arguably billions of people. They were unique men.
Don’t interrupt that sober-minded Patriotism, now.
Indeed, after deposing the monarchy of your mother country, and setting about to create a republic in the face of thousands of years of bloody noble rivalries over succession to the throne, a tall pint of cider is well in order.
You don't even need to give me positive examples, just examples.
https://benjaminfranklinhouse.org/education/benjamin-frankli...
You almost certainly would not have, had you been born in the same period of time.
Let's not pretend that people in the past were monsters simply because they lived during the period of time they lived. Maybe they were all racist monsters by today's standards, but had they been born today they'd be completely different. We are not inherently better than them because we happen to have the dominant opinions of our time and they had the dominant opinions of theirs.
My point is that it's easy to take our 2023 ethics and apply them to people in the 1700s but all that does is prove you don't have a proper context or frame of reference for history. It lets you conveniently ignore things in the most intellectually lazy way. I mean, look at my comment's parent and GP. In reverse order, a perfectly rational and reasonable point about how the framers drank a lot while writing a document that would found a new country (and perhaps the difference between how it affect those people vs. his family). And the knee-jerk, lazy, boring response of "yeah but SLAVES."
Do you think that this response is innovative and thoughtful? Somebody literally said that the framers of the US constitution were collectively some of the "most functional human beings in history" and they were reminded that those people were vile and violent. If you're a black American, you have a reasonable chance of being one of their descendants because they would buy human beings to rape.
They also accomplished many things, and some of them wrote very interesting things. Jefferson was often very insightful, but he also raped slaves. Lots of drunks have written interesting things.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_slavery_in_Georgia
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/George_Whitefield
Of course people knew slavery was wrong, but profits. We may not have slavery today, but the same kind of people are around, for example against minimum wage increases or for non-compete agreements.
People KNEW slavery was wrong, but those in power did not want to admit it. The same way that we KNOW it's wrong to horde massive wealth while children go hungry and people do not have access to basic medical care.
Those people are your neighbors...unlike the billionaires that people harp on about. Monsters are all around you. Just look to your left and right.
Because child services is critically underfunded and poverty is rampaging through our country. The richest one on earth.
> Your neighbors who assault and beat their kids.
Yes, more monsters, but not on the scale of someone who enslaves children and adults en-masse in foreign countries in order to suppress wages in their own country.
> Those people are your neighbors...unlike the billionaires that people harp on about.
Not unlike each other at all. They are the same narcissists and psychopaths, just with less power.
> yeah but SLAVES
It's astounding to me that so many people completely missed the point that these two things are related.
I'm going to go out on a limb here and say that GP's family probably didn't have an army of black people doing all their chores and generating a healthy income stream to live off, for free, so that they could engage full-time in civics.
Harmful effects of nicotine
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4363846/
I'm sure even a cursory search for caffeine will reveal some harmful side effects as well. Especially for people with certain conditions
Source: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5445139/
Sun
Air
Cars
Electricity
Lack of universal healthcare
Industrial Development
Politicians
Life is the leading cause of death
Think about it this way. We are living in an era that will eventually be thought of as a time where people couldn't imagine how we lived.
While I think we might have too much choice now, I think moving back to a 1600 level of choice (and inequality spread) would make me miserable personally. Also, I like not dying at 35 (am over 35 now).
Once people began leaving the peasant life for the factory life (many of them because they were forced to) things changed for the worse in that respect.
I would not like going to such an era. Also, beer is kinda pasteurized, safe water to drink.
I learned to sleep on my stomach a while ago
You could use a similar comparison for suffering in general (chronic illness, chronic pain, etc.) Some may appear more functional than others while in such conditions. Just because you're functional with chronic pain, doesn't mean you aren't hurting and that your life would be very different without that suffering.
Edit: Spelling
Solid decision. I'm 50 now, I certainly feel better overall now than then. If I'm tired in the morning it's only because I went to bed too late and/or lifted (too?) heavy the day before.
Also I always enjoyed my jobs. I was perfectly happy to talk about work during lunch hour. And booze didn’t improve the discourse any.
In 1917 the taxes on booze went sky high and the drinking crashed, but it wasn't unusual to be drunk at work.
https://videnskab.dk/kultur-samfund/braendevins-historie-sna...