> The only exception might be a mortgage of 25-33% of a house value, I'd put 75-66% in cash.

Can you explain your rationality for this? You're still allowing the bank to have senior ownership of your house except... for less money.

If you default, they keep your house, no matter what the debt-to-value is.

Like, I understand saying "I couldn't make my mortgage payments so the bank took the house, but I guess they did pay for 90% of it".

But this seems like all the insecurity of a mortgage for a lot less money?