> "A global study ... finds that economic inequality on a social level cannot be explained by bad choices among the poor nor by good decisions among the rich."
...when their article quotes the first author as saying:
"Our research does not reject the notion that individual behavior and decision-making may directly relate to upward economic mobility... *we narrowly conclude that biased decision-making does not alone explain a significant proportion of population-level economic inequality.*" ??
How do they bring themselves to make the statement:
> "Poor decisions were the same across all income groups, including for people who have overcome poverty."
... when the study didn't look at any real-world decisions whatsoever, but merely at performance on a battery of academic tests, (whose relationship with real-world decision-making we're expected to take on faith)?