OP claimed a rise in rates, not absolute numbers. Is there any plausible reason that reducing other causes of mortality might possibly cause a rise in fraction of the elderly population that develops Alzheimer's?
If other causes of death were eliminated, you might also see an increase in alzheimer's amongst those in the same age bracket. This might be clearest with an example.
Suppose we eliminated heart disease. Life expectancy would increase. What would happen to the rates of other disease? They would go up within age groups. Because you still have to die of something. If heart disease can't take someone out, that means some other factor will be available. Much of the time people have more than one condition.
If the rise is in the fraction of the general population, then an increase in the proportion of the general population that was elderly would be expected to increase the numbers of a disease of the elderly, even if nothing was happening.
If there were a rise in the proportion of e.g. 80 year-olds that were developing Alzheimer's, that'd be a different story. Although you'd still have to ask yourself if some of the conditions that were increasing the proportion of the population that are 80 year-olds were disproportionately extending the life of people with a propensity for Alzheimer's.
Most everyone (at least older people who never got a chickenpox vax) has a latent varicella zoster (the shingles/chickenpox virus) infection, but only a minority will get Alzheimer's. It could easily be true that varicella is causal in most Alzheimer's, but also that many of those cases would never have happened without compounding risk factors like metabolic syndrome.
But Alzheimer’s is a complex disease, it may well be there are multiple factors involved. I also am inclined to think there’s something to your hypothesis, there is some data to support it.
https://www.verywellhealth.com/why-is-alzheimers-called-type...
Diabetes (specifically Type 2) is correlated with Alzheimer’s - how that makes for a useful new classification of diabetes is nonsense.
This would be about as sensical as calling nicotine addiction Type 2 lung cancer.
It also doesn’t help
> However, classifying Alzheimer's as type 3 diabetes is controversial
No, not in the medical community it isn’t. That there are some crackpots and quacks out there doesn’t change that - there is not serious debate ongoing about this in medicine.
It wouldn’t be a viable name anyway as the number 3 has already been reserved/in common use in actual clinical and research practice for pancreatogenic diabetes.
Besides the older human demographics, it's certainly possible the virus strains are evolving to be more aggressive and cause problem more often. From a virus perspective, it wants to be as viral as possible without killing the host. Alzheimer's seems like a reasonable allowance.
With type 1 diabetes there is growing evidence that coxsackievirus B virus is somehow involved.