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> we can change the reason for the statistical correlation: poverty.

Even within the same income bracket, the black homicide rate is an order of magnitude larger than the white one (and after 1975, the homicide rate of the richest blacks is larger than of the poorest whites):

https://randomcriticalanalysis.com/2015/11/16/racial-differe... , table 6

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Can you correct for slavery and 400 years of oppression though?

What exactly is the argument? That rich blacks commit murder at a higher rate than poor whites directly contradicts the argument that it is all about poverty. So the usual argument that slavery led to poverty and poverty leads to crime is wrong. What's left? That these people are committing murder to avenge the slavery of their ancestors, or that murder was baked into their culture by slavery?

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