The most you can say is people prioritize truths differently. What you ate this morning matters very little to anyone but yourself.
EDIT: I see you edited your comment about 'universal truth' after I answered it. I love the irony. Hail to the internet.
A list of previous baseball games listing just dates and teams isn’t particularly interesting even if it’s absolute truth. Meanwhile a less accurate list of future games with teams and dates is something people might actually care about.
In case anyone wonders, I believe (heh) the comment read simply "I disagree there is no universal truth."
What does that even mean? What's "true" about that? It's agreed that it's true, therefore it's true.
This isn't what I'm talking about. The agreement means it's not "universal". It's only true because we agree it's true. Can you prove that 1 = 1 or do we have to agree that 1 = 1? If you can't prove it, is it a "universal truth"? I'm asserting that a truth which requires an agreed context[0] is not "universal".
It is by definition. If you disagree, go write a mathematical proof that 1 = 1. There are many in the world who would love to see it.
But I'm willing to believe I'm simply naive here. You say there is some set of axioms which prove that 1 = 1. Are those axioms not agreements? Since you seem to be familiar, what are those axioms?
There are sets of axioms where 1 = 1 is false, different sets where it’s undefined, and finally sets of axioms where 1 = 1 is true.
However, for a given set of axioms there is no choice and nothing to agree upon. That’s what makes math universally true.
This is the agreement that happens and why it's not universal. We have to agree that "1 = 1" for any statements like "1 + 1 = 2" to even make sense, let alone be true. Per your point, we have to agree that we're talking about something other than base 2 in order for "1 + 1 = 2" to be true, despite my intentions for it to be a potential example of a universal truth. Even "math" isn't universally true.
I have a longer answer here: https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=35659676
= 2 @ + 1 1 is a different notation, but the underlying math is unchanged. So if you explain the notation difference an alien that might use = 2 @ + 1 1 they would also agree that in an our notation 1 + 1 = 2. The same relationship is true of the choice of axioms.
> 1 = 1 isn’t inherently true on it’s own
This sounds a whole lot like "math isn't a universal truth". I guess we need to take a step back, since it seems this is where the disagreement lies: what does it mean for something to be a universal truth?
My position is that a truth is universal if it is self-evident; that is, it does not require an agreement between observers. These axioms are that agreement and therefore Mathematics, which stems from such axioms, is not universal truth.
Axioms are just another aspect of Mathematics and changing them has utility for mathematicians. Euclidean geometry for example uses one set and a wide range of non Euclidean geometry systems use different sets.
The universal truth that in Euclidean geometry the interior angles of a triangle add up to 180 degrees is not diminished because the interior angles of a triangle can add up to different numbers in spherical geometry. It’s just two different systems but they all fall under Mathematics.
This is a mistaken understanding. Axioms define the logic of Mathematics.
E: I guess I may have misinterpreted. I mixed up “supersede” with “precede” in my head. I mean to say axioms are a precursor to logic systems. The axiom has to be agreed upon before any truthful statements can be made.
If A, B, C … then Y is a self contained true statement. You can’t simply say Y alone is true because without A, B, C, … it’s not true.
People tend to assume A, B, C etc when they say things like 1 + 1 = 2 but that’s just a quark of language. Words like him or they work because people can work out the specifics from context.
This phrasing helps me to see your point; gives me something to think about. Thanks for your patience in explaining! I enjoyed the conversation.